2013 June UGC NET Solved Question Paper in Public Administration Paper 3
1. Which among following is concerned with the definition of Public Administration as socially embedded process of collective relationship, dialogue and action to promote human flourishing for all?
(A) New Public Administration
(B) Third Minnowbrook Conference
(C) New Public Management
(D) New Public Service Theory
Answer: (B)
2. The scope of Public Administration consists of the study of only three factors namely men, materials and methods. This view is expressed by
(A) P. McQueen
(B) Mooney and Reiley
(C) Louis P. Anderson
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)
3. Which of the following is not a matter of difference between public and private administration?
(A) Public Welfare and Public Satisfaction
(B) Public Scrutiny of actions and decisions
(C) Consistency and impartiality in action
(D) POSDCORB activities
Answer: (D)
4. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Books) (Authors)
a. Public Administration in the Time of Turbulence i. Lord Hewart
b. Toward a new public administration: The Minnowbrook perspective ii. Frank J. Goodnow
c. New Despotism iii. Frank Marini
d. Politics and Administration iv. Dwight Waldo
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) i iii ii iv
(D) ii iv i iii
Answer: (A)
5. An informal organization is:
(i) Comparatively stable
(ii) Satisfies social needs of its members.
(iii) Helps members in achievingtheir goals.
(iv) Preserves the cultural values of its members.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
Answer: (D)
6. Assertion (A): Red-tape has been defined as punctilious exactitude in the observance of regulation.
Reason (R): ‘Red tape’ is perhaps the best insurance the public has to receive equal treatment at the hand of government.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
7. Assertion (A): There is no ideal number of persons a supervisor can supervise.
Reason (R): Span of control varies on the basis of factors like function, time, space and delegation of authority.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
8. Woodrow Wilson was a:
(i) President of U.S.A.
(ii) Governor of New Jersey
(iii) Recipient of Nobel Prize
(iv) President of Princeton University
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
(A) (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (D)
9. Which of the following factors influenced the emergence of the theory and practice of Human Relations?
(i) Class antagonisms
(ii) Reaction to Taylorism
(iii) Economic Depression
(iv) Backward material and cultural aspirations of workers.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (ii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (B)
10. Assertion (A): Classical writers were concerned with improving the organizational structure as a means of increasing efficiency.
Reason (R): They laid emphasis on the importance of principles for the design of a logical structure of organization.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
11. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Writers) (Books)
a. James G. March and Herbert Simon i. The Principles of Organization
b. Chester Bernard ii. The Human Organization
c. James D. Mooney and Allan C. Reiley iii. Organisations
d. Rensis Likert iv. Organisation and Management
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii iv ii
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) ii iv iii i
(D) iv ii i iii
Answer: (B)
12. Which one of the following is not an Independent Regulatory Commission in India?
(A) Telecom Regulatory Authority
(B) National Labour Relations Commission
(C) Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Commission
(D) Securities and Exchange Board
Answer: (B)
13. Which one among the following books of M.P. Follett was edited by Metcalf and Urwick after the death of M.P. Follett?
(A) Creative Experience
(B) New State
(C) Dynamic Administration
(D) The Speaker of the House of Representative
Answer: (C)
14. Frederick Herzberg has identified certain determinants of job satisfaction in his two factors theory. Which of the following according to him are not job satisfiers?
(i) Salary
(ii) Achievement
(iii) Working conditions
(iv) Recognition
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) & (ii)
(B) (ii) & (iii)
(C) (ii) & (iv)
(D) (iii) & (iv)
Answer: (C)
15. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Concept) (Thinkers)
a. Decision Tree i. Cohen, March and Olson
b. Linking Pin Model ii. Chris Argyriswww.netugc.com
c. Garbage Can Model iii. Duncan
d. Sensitivity Training iv. Rensis Likert
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iv iii ii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) i iv ii iii
(D) iii iv i ii
Answer: (D)
16. Rensis Likert has suggested which of the following model for removal of hurdles in traditional hierarchies?
(A) Management System I
(B) The Linking Pin Model
(C) Application of System 4
(D) Science based management
Answer: (B)
17. Who among following has given the concept of ‘A New Comparative Public Administration’?
(A) Keith M. Henderson
(B) Ira Sharkansky
(C) Dwight Waldo
(D) Robert P. Biller
Answer: (A)
18. Who said these words about Comparative Public Administration extended meaning of comparison “is the generalized or global framework of thinking about problems”?
(A) John Montgomery
(B) Jack C. Plano
(C) Fred W. Riggs
(D) Talcott Parsons
Answer: (C)
19. Robert T. Golembiewski mentions three themes of comparative public administration as:
(i) Significance of focal concerns
(ii) Magnitude of resulting effort
(iii) Motivation for the approach
(iv) Stress on values
Select the correct answer by using code given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (A)
20. Which among the following is not a feature of Industrial model as developed by Fred W. Riggs?
(A) Pre-dominance of ascriptive particularistic and diffuse patterns
(B) High degree of social mobility
(C) Prevalence of voluntary associations performing specific functions
(D) Well-developed occupational systems
Answer: (A)
21. The salient characteristics of bazaar canteen economy as described by Riggs is/are
(i) Price Indeterminacy
(ii) Agglomeration of values
(iii) Intrusive access to the elites
(iv) Pariah entrepreneurship
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (D)
22. The merit system for recruitment based on competitive examination was introduced first in
(A) Great Britain
(B) United States America
(C) China
(D) India
Answer: (C)
23. Arrange in descending order the following institutions of Local Government of France:
(i) Canton
(ii) Department
(iii) Commune
(iv) Arrondissement
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iv) and (iii)
(C) (i), (iii), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iv), (i) and (iii)
Answer: (D)
24. Which one of the following is top tier of local government in U.K.?
(A) Metropolitan District
(B) Metropolitan County
(C) Parish
(D) Shire
Answer: (B)
25. The Hatch Act, 1939 in U.S.A. dealt with
(A) Right to Strike
(B) Political activities of Civil Servants
(C) Right to Association
(D) Machinery for Negotiation
Answer: (B)
26. Ferrel Heady identifies major features of national bureaucracy in the developing society. These are
(i) The basic pattern of administration is Imitative.
(ii) Widespread discrepancy between Form and Reality.
(iii) Bureaucracy accepts directions from other legitimate branches of government.
(iv) The bureaucracies are deficient in skilled Manpower.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (B)
27. “The bureaucratic structure and its orientation to a development role are not necessarily incompatible.” This statement in the Indian context was made by
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) J.N. Khosla
(C) K.M. Munshi
(D) V.A. PaiPanandikar
Answer: (D)
28. Which one of the following is not correct about the development administration?
(A) Suitable institutions to accomplish the developmental goals are to be established.
(B) It is essential to build up administrative capacity and capability.
(C) Coordination is a basic component of development administration.
(D) Communication is only a desirable component of the development administration.
Answer: (D)
29. Assertion (A): In parliamentary form of government the executive is responsible to legislature.
Reason (R): In the constitution of India the provision is made that the council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
30. Decision Making in development administration is
(i) Flexible
(ii) Centralised
(iii) Rigid
(iv) Innovative
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) & (ii)
(B) (ii) & (iii)
(C) (iii) & (iv)
(D) (i) & (iv)
Answer: (D)
31. The President of India makes some appointments by warrant under his hand and seal. These are
(i) Judges of Supreme Court
(ii) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(iii) Attorney-General of India
(iv) Governors of the states
Select correct answer by using codes given below:
(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (B)
32. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Reports) (Year)
a. Montague- Chemsford Report on constitutional reforms in India i. 1955
b. State Reorganization Commission ii. 1918
c. Taxation Enquiry Commission iii. 1954
d. Statutory (Simon) Commission iv. 1927
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iv iii ii i
(C) ii iv i iii
(D) ii i iii iv
Answer: (D)
33. “Of all the policy making organs in the Government of India, the secretariat stands on an exceptionally high pedestal.” This statement is attributed to
(A) K. Subramanyam
(B) Chand Joshi
(C) S.C. Vajpeyi
(D) S.R. Maheshwari
Answer: (D)
34. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(Parliament’s power to make laws) (Articles)
a. For implementing any international treaty or agreement i. Article 250
b. In the matters enumerated in the State list during Emergency ii. Article 246
c. For imposing a tax not mentioned in concurrent list or state list iii. Article 253
d. The matters enumerated in Union List iv. Article 248
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iv i ii iii
Answer: (C)
35. Match the List – I with List – II andselect the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Reports of the second administrative reforms commission) (Title of the Report)
a. Crisis Management i. Friction to Fusion
b. Local Government ii. From despair to hope
c. Capacity building for conflict resolution iii. In inspiring journey into future
d. Social capital iv. A Shared Destiny
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii iv ii
(B) ii iii i iv
(C) iii ii iv i
(D) iv i ii iii
Answer: (B)
36. The importance of personnel administration has increased in recent times due to followings:
(i) Recognition of Human aspect of organization
(ii) Long-range needs of manpower
(iii) Large size of the modern organization
(iv) High wage bills necessitating optimum use of manpower.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (D)
37. Match the List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Provisions of Constitution) (Contents)www.netugc.com
a. Article 316(1) i. Qualification for member of Union Public Service Commission
b. Article 316(2) ii. Ground for removal of member of Public Service Commission
c. Article 317(3) iii. Further employment under Government of India
d. Article 319 iv. Resignation of members of Public Service Commission
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) i iii iv ii
(C) i iv ii iii
(D) i iii ii iv
Answer: (C)
38. On the recommendations made by Chief Ministers’ Conference in 1961, the Parliament resolved to create which of the following three new All India Services?
(i) Indian Service of Engineers(Irrigation, Power, Buildings &Roads)
(ii) Indian Medical and Health Service
(iii) Indian Audit and Accounts Service
(iv) Indian Forest Service
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (B)
39. Which of following statements about ‘Right to Strike’ by Civil Servants in India is correct?
(A) It is prohibited by transaction of business rules.
(B) Right to strike is mentioned in Civil Service Conduct Rules.
(C) It is prohibited by law.
(D) Strike by Civil Servants constitutes breach of discipline.
Answer: (D)
40. Assertion (A): What has been happening in India, in recent times, is Sanskritization of corruption.
Reason (R): People began to adopt corruption not for its inherent utility, but as a means of belonging to the elite class.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
41. Consider the following statements regarding Administrative Tribunals:
(i) Parliament is empowered to make laws for the adjudication or trial by administrative tribunals.
(ii) The disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and condition of services of persons appointed to public services are adjudicated by the said tribunals.
(iii) The jurisdiction and authority of such tribunals is specified by the law passed by the Parliament.
(iv) The administrative tribunals can also be set up for adjudicating disputes relating to foreign exchange and export and import matters.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (D)
42. Consider the following functions of Standing Committees of Parliament in India:
(i) To consider demand for grants.
(ii) To make a report on demand for grants to the Houses of Parliament.
(iii) To consider annual reports of Ministries and make reports there on.
(iv) To consider national basic short term policy documents presented to the houses.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (B)
43. ‘If the Finance Minister is to be held responsible for filling the reservoir and maintaining certain depth of water in it, he must be in a position to regulate the outflow’. This statement is made by
(A) Hoover Commission
(B) Haldane Committee
(C) Donoughmore Committee
(D) Tenth Finance Commission
Answer: (B)
44. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law.
(ii) Net proceeds of taxes, duties and other revenues are credited to the consolidated fund of India.
(iii) A law passed by the Parliament has established contingency fund of India to enable advances to be made by the President for the purpose of meeting unforeseen expenditure.
(iv) Prior authorization under Article 115 or Article 116 is required to make advances out of contingency fund of India.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (A)
45. Scientific research intends to :
(i) Generalize Knowledge
(ii) Extend Knowledge
(iii) Correct Knowledge
(iv) Comprehend Knowledge
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (D)
46. “A set of questions which are asked and filled in by an interviewer in a face-to-face situation with another person” is termed as
(A) Questionnaire
(B) Schedule
(C) Interview
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B)
47. Which one of the following is not an advantage of the interview as a research tool?
(A) Interview is a highly flexible tool allowing a more permissible atmosphere.
(B) Interview has greater opportunity to appraise the accuracy and validity of replies.
(C) The interviewer may be able to differentiate between fact and fiction supplied by informants.
(D) Interviewer may be able to interject guesses and impressions into respondent’s responses.
Answer: (D)
48. Who of the following described the case study method of research as the social microscope?
(A) Herbert Spencer
(B) E. Burgress
(C) Frederic Le Play
(D) William Healy
Answer: (B)
49. What is another name of Measure of Central Tendency?
(A) Index Number
(B) Average
(C) Mode
(D) Median
Answer: (B)
50. The Lakhina (Ahmednagar) experiment was related with
(A) District Administration
(B) Rural Development
(C) Tribal Development
(D) Revenue Administration
Answer: (A)
51. Which one of the following statements regarding research report is not correct?
(A) The communication of findings is an important part of researcher’s responsibilities.
(B) The researcher is not under any obligation to consider the audience for whom the given report is intended.
(C) An introduction about theproblems investigated ismandatory component of thereport.
(D) A discussion of methods/ procedures and an elaborate presentation of facts and findings are compulsory.
Answer: (B)
52. Lord Rippon’s Resolution was called as the Magna Carta of Local Government. The resolution includes:
(i) Establishment of a network of local self-governing institutions.
(ii) Financial decentralization
(iii) Adoption of election as a means of constituting local bodies.
(iv) Reduction of the number of officials to one third of total membership.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (D)
53. Which one of following is the meaning of ‘Panchayat’ according to the Constitution of India?
(A) Institution of Local Self Government.
(B) Institution of Self Government for Rural areas.
(C) Institution of Rural Local Government.
(D) Institution of Rural Local Administration.
Answer: (B)
54. Assertion (A): The powers and functions of Gram Sabha are prescribed in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R): Gram Sabha is a forum where civic engagement and formation of social capital is possible.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (D)
55. Which of the following committees on Panchayati Raj recommended Zila Parishad as the lynchpin of the PRI structure?
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(D) Paswan Committee
Answer: (B)
56. Assertion (A): Zila Parishad is vested with planning and developmental functions.
Reason (R): The technicalmanpower is already availableat the district level.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
57. Which one of the following recommended mandatory devolution of taxation powers to Panchayati Raj Institutions in India?
(A) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
(B) Ashok Mehta Committee
(C) G.V.K. Rao Committee
(D) M.L. Dantwala Working Group
Answer: (B)
58. Assertion (A): A comprehensive exercise needs to be taken up regarding broadening and deepening of the revenue base of local governments.
Reason (R): The State Government by delegation expands the tax domain of Panchayats.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
59. Which of the following is the form of integrated governing structure at the District level as recommended by the second ARC?
(A) District Assembly
(B) District Council
(C) District Committee
(D) District Board
Answer: (B)
60. Assertion (A): There is need to adopt a common categorization of urban local bodies across the country to improve clarity in their definition.
Reason (R): There should be three-tier of administration of urban local governments, except in the case of Town Panchayat.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
61. National Policy for persons with disabilities was framed in the year
(A) 2003
(B) 2004
(C) 2005
(D) 2006
Answer: (D)
62. Which of the following is not one of the objectives of social justice laid down in our Five Year Plans?
(A) Inclusive growth
(B) Bringing balanced regional growth
(C) Removal of unemployment
(D) Promoting economic growth
Answer: (D)
63. Who recommended for productive planning with constitutional status in India?
(A) B.R. Ambedkar
(B) K.C. Neogi
(C) J.L. Nehru
(D) Manmohan Singh
Answer: (A)
64. Put the following in an ascending chronological order and select the correct answer by using codes given below:
i. Constitution of National Commission to Review the working of the constitution.
ii. Enactment of SCs and STs (Prevention of Atrocities) Act.
iii. The employment of Manual Scavengers and construction of Dry Latrines (Prohibition) Act.
iv. Amendment of Protection of Civil Rights Act.
Codes:
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) ii iii iv i
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) iv ii iii i
Answer: (D)
65. The 12th Five Year Plan document approved by Cabinet aimed at
(i) Rejuvenating India’s economy
(ii) Infusing higher government funding in key social sector such as health, education and sanitation.
(iii) Targeted the average economic growth at 8.2%
(iv) Technological advancement
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (B)
66. Which one of the following has proposed setting up of a Financial Redressal Agency to deal with consumer grievances in a time bound manner?
(A) Economic Commission
(B) 11th Five Year Plan Document
(C) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
(D) The Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
Answer: (D)
67. Which of the following suggested that there is no need for continuation of the District Rural Development Agency?
(A) Report of the Committee to review the existing administrative arrangement for rural development.
(B) II ARC report on Local Governance
(C) The Chief Ministers Round Table Conference on Panchayati Raj
(D) Evaluation of Panchayati Raj Institutions, 2000 UNNATTI NGO
Answer: (B)
68. Members of Parliament and state Legislatures should not become members of Local Bodies. This recommendation was made by
(A) Ashok Mehta Committee
(B) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(C) P.K. Thungon Committee
(D) Veerappan Moiley Committee
Answer: (D)
69. Assertion (A): The Community Development Programme was launched to secure total development of the material and human resources of rural areas.
Reason (R): It was administered in phases at five levels National, State, District, Block and Village level.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
70. Approaches to rural development in India include:
(i) Area Development Approach
(ii) Target Group Approach
(iii) Social Security Approach
(iv) Self-Employment Approach
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (D)
71. Which of the following statement/statements regarding policy analysis is/are correct?
(i) It gained considerable popularity since 1960’s.www.netugc.com
(ii) It was first adopted in the United States.
(iii) It aims at improving the quality of a policy.
(iv) It involves a wide range of studies and research activities.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (ii) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (D)
72. Project implementation may involve many steps. Arrange those in sequential order by using codes given below:
(i) Initiating the project.
(ii) Clarifying authority, responsibility and relationships.
(iii) Directing and Controlling
(iv) Establishing Control System
(v) Obtaining resources
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (i), (ii), (iv), (v), (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii), (v)
(D) (i), (ii), (v), (iv), (iii)
Answer: (D)
73. Which one among the following is not a model of Policy formulation and implementation?
(A) Institutional
(B) Garbage Can
(C) Historical
(D) Organized Anarchy
Answer: (C)
74. Who among the following are not associated with the group model of policy formulation and implementation?
(i) Arthur F. Bentley
(ii) Wayne Parsons
(iii) C. Wright Mills
(iv) Earl Latham
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer: (B)
75. Which of the following statements about the Rural Electrification Policy of India, 2006 is not correct?
(A) There has to be a provision of electricity to all Households by 2009.
(B) A census village is to be taken as village for the purpose of rural electrification.
(C) The State Governments were supposed to set up District Committees to review and coordinate the extension of electrification at the district level.
(D) Central government shall endeavour to supply electricity to all areas including villages and hamlets.
Answer: (D)