The following are the UGC NET Examination Question Paper-1 along with answer keys (solved) which was held on 26th June 2019 (Morning Shift). The answer keys are as per the revised answer keys release after grievances by the National Testing Agency (NTA).
1. A shift in attitude in respondents between two points during data collection is called
(1) Reactive effect
(2) Maturation effect
(3) Regression effect
(4) Conditioning effect
Answer: (3)
2. The time-frame in which a study explores a situation or problem is also called the
(1) Reference period
(2) Age
(3) Longitudinal
(4) Retrospective time
Answer: (1)
3 The major characteristic of correlation analysis is to seek out
(1) Differences among variables
(2) Variations among variables
(3) Association among variables
(4) Regression among variables
Answer: (3)
4. Which of the learner characteristics will influence his/her perspective in a course of study?
i) Learner’s commitment
ii) Parents interest in the learner
(iii) Prior knowledge of the learner
(iv) Skill of the learner in the concerned area
(v) Family size of the learner
(vi) Socio-economic background of the family to which the learner belongs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (i) (iii) and (iv)
(2) (i), (ii) and (Iii)
(3) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(4) (iv), (v) and (vi)
Answer: (1)
5. The performance of a student is compared with another student in which type of testing?
(1) Criterion referenced testing
(2) Diagnostic testing
(3) Summative testing
(4) Norm-referenced testing
Answer: (4)
6. From the list given below identify those which are called Non-probability sampling procedures’:
(i) Simple random sampling
(ii) Dimensional sampling
(iii) Snowball sampling
(iv) Cluster sampling
(v) Quota sampling
(vi) Stratified sampling
Choose the correct option
(1) (i), (ii) and (Iii)
(2) (ii), (iv) and (V)
(3) (i), (iii) and 6V)
(4) (ii). (iii) and (V)
Answer: (4)
7. The conceptual framework in which a research is conducted is called a
(1) Synopsis of research
(2) Research design
(3) Research hypothesis
(4) Research paradigm
Answer: (2)
8. Which of the following is an example of a maximum performance test?
(1) Personality tests
(2) Projective personality tests
(3) Aptitude tests
(4) Interest and attitude scales
Answer: (3)
Q.9 Which of the strategies in the list given below will be associated with direct teaching?
(i) Providing examples and explanation
(ii) Promoting inquiry
(iii) Focussing on concepts
(iv) Giving review and recapitulation
(v) Oering practice and feedback
(vi) Problem raising and problem-solving
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (iv) and (v)
(4) (iv) (v) and (vi)
Answer: (3)
10. From the list given below identify those questions which are called process rather than content based questions?
(i) Convergent questions
(ii) Divergent questions
(iii) Fact based questions
(iv) Concept based questions
(v) Open questions
(vi) Closed questions.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (ii), (iii) and (M
(3) (iv), (v) and (vi)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (v)
Answer: (4)
Geography seeks to understand the physical and human organization of the surface of the Earth. In the field of geography, inter-related themes are frequently seen. These are scale, pattern and process. Scale is defined as the level of structure on organisation at which a phenomenon is studied. Pattern is defined as the variation observed in a phenomenon studied at a particular scale. The third theme, process, further connects the first two. Process is defined as the description of how the factors that aect a phenomenon act to product a pattern at a particular scale. For instance, when a passenger on an aircraft looks out of the window, the View changes according to the scale. At the global scale when the aircraft maintains its height, he can see the chunks of clouds in all their pattern, the sun or the moon, as per the time. When the aircraft loses a little height, passengers can see the land and water masses in their dierent colours and the shape of land masses. At the continental scale, the passengers can see the shapes of the land features and how they are distributed. The pattern emerges as the variation of land and water and the proportion of each. Looking carefully, passengers can note how each land mass aligns with the others and how each mountain bears the signs of the process through which it emerged.
The processes in a geography change in a regular and repetitive manner. One instance of this is the annual solar cycle of the sun and the earth. Most systems in nature display time cycles that are organised in a rhythm of their own as these time cycles and natural processes are always active, the environment of the earth is always in a state of dynamism. This environmental change is not only the result of natural process but also the result of human activity. Physical geography works towards understanding the interaction between man and nature and also the results of this interaction in order to manage global climate change better.
11. The time cycles of the system of nature follow their own
(1) Path
(2) Rhythm
(3) Process
(4) Cycle
Answer: (2)
12. The view seen by a passenger looking out of the window of an aircraft; will be affected by the
(1) Process
(2) Pattern
(3) Scale
(4) Rhythm
Answer: (3)
13. Physical geography studies the results of the interaction between man and nature in order to
(1) Understand global climate change
(2) Study the impact of man’s activities on nature
(3) Address the issue of global climate change
(4) Reduce man—animal conflict
Answer: (3)
14. In geography, pattern studies the variation observed in a phenomenon at
(1) A particular scale
(2) Any scale
(3) Every scale
(4) Most scales
Answer: (1)
15. The alignment of landmass with other elements can be seen by a passenger on a flight on a
(1) Global scale
(2) Continental scale
(3) Local scale
(4) Time scale
Answer: (2)
16 Match Set ‘A’ with Set ‘B’.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Answer: (3)
17. When subject and predicate of both the premises are the same but they differ in quality only, it is known as
(1) Contradictories
(2) Contraries
(3) Subaltern
(4) Super altern
Answer: (2)
18. Which of the following fractions is the result of the sum of an integer and its reciprocal?
1. 15/8
2. 26/5
3. 36/7
4. 37/5
Answer: (2)
19. Mass media do not have pre-determined functions for everyone and people use them the way they like. This is suggestive of the fact that,
(1) Audiences are active
(2) Content is of little significance
(3) Content lacks plurality
(4) Audiences are homogeneous
Answer: (1)
20. If proposition ‘All republics are grateful’ is taken to be true then which of the following propositions can be false?
(i) Republics are not grateful
(ii) Some republics are not grateful
(iii) No republics are grateful
(iv) Some republics are grateful
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) only
(3) (i). (ii) and (iii)
(4) (ii) and (iii)
Answer: (3)
21 Sanjay sold an article at a loss of 25%. If the selling price had been increased by Rs. 175, there would have been a gain of 10%. What was the cost price of the article?
(1) Rs. 350
(2) Rs. 400
(3) Rs. 500
(4) Rs. 750
Answer: (3)
22. A communication process can be considered complete when
(1) The sender transmits the message
(2) The message enters the channel
(3) The message leaves the channel
(4) The receiver understands the message
Answer: (4)
23. A customer writes to a bank, ‘Kindly send me a statement of my transactions in my savings bank account ‘A’ during the last three months”. In terms of communication it will be called
(1) Input
(2) Message
(3) Output
(4) Feedback
Answer: (2)
24. A train leaves Agra at 5 am and reaches Delhi at 9 am. Another train leaves Delhi at 7 am and reaches Agra at 10:30 a.m. At what time do the two trains cross each other?
(1) 6:36 am
(2) 6:56 am
(3) 7 am
(4) 7:56 am
Answer: (4)
25. The proposition ‘No red is black is equivalent to which of the following propositions?
(i) No black is red
(ii) All red are black
(iii) Some red are not black
(iv) Red is not black
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (i), (ii). (iii) and (iv)
(2) (iii) only
(3) (1) and (iv)
(4) (iv) only
Answer: (3)
26. Given below are two premises with four conclusions drawn from them.
Which of the following conclusions could be validly drawn from the premises?
Premises:
(i) Some bags are tables
(1i) All bags are chairs.
Conclusions:
(a) Some tables are chairs
(b) No chair is tablewww.netugc.com
(c) Some chairs are bags
(d) Some bags are not tables
Select the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a) and (d)
(4) (b) only
Answer: (1)
27. The average of 35 raw scores is 18. The average of first seventeen of them is 14 and that of last seventeen is 20. Find the eighteenth raw score.
(1) 42
(2) 46
(3) 52
(4) 56
Answer: (3)
28. Identify the reasoning in the following argument: Pre-active stage of classroom teaching is important just as pre-learning preparation stage of communication’
(1) Hypothetical
(2) Deductive
(3) Inductive
(4) Analogical
Answer: (4)
29. In the context of communication, usual sequence is
(1) Language —> Communication —> Society —> Civilization
(2) Communication —> Society —> Language —> Civilization
(3) Communication —> Language —> Society —> Civilization
(4) Language —> Society —> Communication —> Civilization
Answer: (3)
30. If REASON is coded as 5 and GOVERNMENT as 9, than what is the code for ACCIDENT?
(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9
Answer: (2)
Consider the following table that shows expenditures of a company (in lakh rupees) per annum over the given years. Answer the questions based on the data contained in the table:
31. The approximate ratio between the total expenditure on taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on transport for all the years is
(1) 31 : 40
(2) 25: 36
(3) 27 : 30
(4) 31 : 36
Answer: (4)
32. The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately what percent of the total amount of salary paid during this period?
(1) 0.9%
(2) 1.3%
(3) 1.6%
(4) 2.0%
Answer: (2)
33. Total expenditure of all the items in 2008 was approximately what percent of the total expenditure in 2012?
(1) 66%
(2) 69%
(3) 72%
(4) 75%
Answer: (1)
34. The approximate ratio between the total expenditure of the company in the year 2008 and the total expenditure of the company in the year 2009 is
(1) 57: 75
(2) 52: 68
(3) 57 : 68
(4) 68 : 57
Answer: (3)
35. What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay (in Rupees) during this period?
(1) 30.5 Lakh
(2) 32.7 Lakh
(3) 33.7 Lakh
(4) 35.5 Lakh
Answer: (3)
36. Which of the following statements represent the main functions of UGC?
(1) Recognition of institutions
(1i) Maintenance of quality and standards
(Iii) Appointment of Vice Chancellor
(iv) Giving grants to institutions
(v) Making state governments responsible for educational development
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii) and (v)
Answer: (3)
37. The main aim of the faculty recharge scheme of UGC was to
(1) Address the shortage of faculty in higher education institution
(2) Upgrade the teaching skills of the faculty
(3) Upgrade the research infrastructure for the faculty in colleges and universities
(4) Strengthen the academia — industry linkage
Answer: (1)
38. Which of the following is an online store house of all academic awards like certificates, diplomas, degrees marksheets etc?
(1) SWAYAM
(2) National Digital Library
(3) National Academic Library
(4) National Academic Depository
Answer: (4)www.netugc.com
39. The convenient place to store contact information for quick retrieval in e-mail is
(1) Address box
(2) Message box
(3) Address book
(4) Message book
Answer: (3)
40. Montreal protocol aims at
(1) Reduction in emissions of green house gases
(2) Phasing out ozone depleting substances
(3) Prohibiting transboundary movement of hazardous waste
(4) Enhancing cooperation among UN member states for peaceful uses of nuclear energy
Answer: (2)
41. SMTP is an acronym for
(1) Simple Mail Transport Protocol
(2) Simple Mail Terminal Protocol
(3) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
(4) Simple Mail Transition Protocol
Answer: (3)
42. In large parts of Eastern India, the ground water is contaminated by
(1) Arsenic
(2) Lead
(3) Mercury
(4) Nickel
Answer: (1)
43. Taj Mahal is mainly threatened by the deleterious effects of
(1) Sulphur dioxide
(2) Chlorine
(3) Oxygen
(4) Hydrogen
Answer: (1)
44. Two statements are given
Statement I: Earthquake ‘A’ is 5 on Richter scale and Earthquake ‘B’ is 8 on the same scale. Earthquake ‘B’ has 1000 times the wave amplitude compared to ‘A’.www.netugc.com
Statement II: The energy released in ‘B’ is three times that of ‘A’
Choose the correct option:
(1) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I and II are correct
(3) Statement II is correct and I is incorrect
(4) Statement I and II are incorrect
Answer: (1)
45. A computer has main memory of 960 KBytes. What is the exact number of bytes contained in this memory?
(1) 960 x 8
(2) 960 x 1000
(3) 960 x 1024
(4) 960 x 1024 x 1024
Answer: (3)
46. Name the scheme which facilitates academic and research collaboration between Indian Institution and the best institution in the world
(1) ICSSR — IMPRESS
(2) Sta Development Scheme
(3) SPARC
(4) Institutional Development Scheme
Answer: (3)
47. Which of the following file format is not a video file format?
(1) AW
(2) .MOV
(3) .MP4
(4) .JPEG
Answer: (4)
48. For the day to day administration of University, which of the following bodies is responsible?
(1) Senate
(2) Syndicate/ Executive council
(3) Student council
(4) Academic council
Answer: (2)
49. Efficiency of electrical power generation is least amongst the following sources of energy in case of
(1) Solar
(2) Wind
(3) Geothermal
(4) Nuclear
Answer: (3)
50. Which of the following is a non-conventional learning programme in higher education?
(1) Swayam
(2) Face-to-face teaching-learning
(3) Tutorial class
(4) Seminar
Answer: (1)
You may be also interested in the following UGC NET Examination solved question paper 1.
UGC NET Examination Solved Question Paper-1 of 2006 December
UGC NET Examination Solved Question Paper-1 of 2007 December
UGC NET Examination Solved Question Paper-1 of 2008 December
UGC NET Examination Solved Question Paper-1 of 2009 December
UGC NET Examination Solved Question Paper-1 of 2010 December
UGC NET Examination Solved Question Paper-1 of 2011 December
UGC NET Examination Solved Question Paper-1 of 2012 December
UGC NET Examination Solved Question Paper-1 of 2013 September
UGC NET Examination Solved Question Paper-1 of 2013 December
UGC NET Examination Solved Question Paper-1 of 2014 December
UGC NET Examination Solved Question Paper-1 of 2015 December
UGC NET Examination Solved Question Paper-1 of 2017 November
UGC NET Examination Solved Question Paper-1 of 2018 8th July
UGC NET Examination Solved Question Paper-1 of 2018 22nd July
UGC NET Examination Solved Question Paper-1 of 2018 December