2013 December UGC NET Solved Question Paper in Public Administration Paper 3
1. “In simplest terms administration is determined action taken in pursuit of a conscious purpose.” This statement is given by:
(A) Z.A. Vieg
(B) Pfiffner
(C) Nigro
(D) Marshall E. Dimock
Answer: (A)
2. Of the three distinctions made by Simon between Public and Private Administration, which one of the following is not among them?
(A) That public administration aims at social welfare, while private administration is profit oriented.
(B) That public administration is administration is business like.
(C) That public administration is political whereas private administration is non-political.
(D) That public administration is characterized by red tape from which private administration is free.
Answer: (A)
3. Which of the following is not a feature of a formal organization?
(A) Legal status
(B) Permanence
(C) Primacy of structure
(D) Shared values and common standards of behaviour
Answer: (D)
4. Which one of the following is not correct about Woodrow Wilson?
(A) He was a professor of Political Science.
(B) He was the President of USA.
(C) He was the first comparativist in Public Administration.
(D) He was the Chairman of the American Society for Public Administration.
Answer: (D)
5. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Book) List – II (Author)
a. The Administrative State i. L. Urwick
b. Administrative Theories and Politics ii. F.W. Willoughby
c. The Elements of Administration iii. Dwight Waldo
d. Principles of Public Administration iv. Peter Seef
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iii iv
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) ii i iv iii
(D) iv iii ii i
Answer: (B)
6. Assertion (A): M.P. Follett can be considered as a link between the classical and behavioural theories.
Reason (R): M.P. Follett developed certain principles and their universality as well as stressed on the importance of emotions.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
7. ‘A process of fusion of individual aspirations with organisational goals, individual skills with organizational position and individual conduct with organizational role’ is advocated by
(A) Chester Bernard
(B) Rensis Likert
(C) Chris Argyris
(D) Kurt Lewin
Answer: (C)
8. Co-existence of formally differentiated structure of a diffracted society with undifferentiated structure of fused society has been described by F.W. Riggs as
(A) Heterogeneity
(B) Formalism
(C) Overlapping
(D) Poly communalism
Answer: (C)
9. Valence Expectancy, as an alternative theory of motivation was propounded by
(A) Paul Hersey and Keneth H. Blackchard
(B) Black and James Mouton
(C) Victor H. Vroom
(D) Hobhouse
Answer: (C)
10. Assertion (A): Leadership is defined by result, not attributes.
Reason (R): The productivity of work is not responsibility of worker, but of the manager.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
11. In the context of the New Public Management theory, the administration is apparently moving
(i) from rule to result orientation
(ii) from system to enterprise
(iii) from the duties of administration to the rights of citizens
(iv) from decentralisation to centralisation.
Select the answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (C)
12. “Organization is the form of every human association for the attainment of a common purpose.” This statement is given by
(A) J.D. Mooney
(B) L.D. White
(C) John M. Gaus
(D) Luther Gullick
Answer: (A)
13. According to Chester Bernard an organisation:
(i) is not a leviathan.
(ii) is pejorative sense of bureaucracy.
(iii) is a figure of organisation man.
(iv) is an impersonal system of coordinated human effort.
Select correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (A)
14. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Theory) List – II (Thinker)
a. Classical Approach i. Chester Bernard
b. Human Relations Approach ii. Douglas McGregor
c. Systems Approach iii. Henry Fayol
d. Socio-Psychological Approach iv. Elton Mayo
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i iii iv ii
(B) iii ii i iv
(C) iii iv i ii
(D) iv iii ii i
Answer: (C)www.netugc.com
15. Nicholas Henry classified various models of policy formulation and implementation into three broad groups. Which one among the following is not correct?
(A) Exclusion/Consumption Paradigm
(B) Incrementalist Paradigm
(C) Rationalist Paradigm
(D) Strategic Planning Paradigm
Answer: (A)
16. Comparative Public Administration emphasises that
(i) organizations must be viewed as embedded in specific cultures and political settings.
(ii) both the study and practice of administration are pervasively value-loaded.
(iii) the principles of public administration are seriously inadequate.
(iv) any proper discipline must have complimentary micro and macro aspects.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: (D)
17. Comparative Administrative Group (CAG) was
(i) established in the year 1963.
(ii) initially funded by Ford Foundation.
(iii) initially chaired by Fred. W. Riggs.
(iv) established in U.S.A.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) only
Answer: (C)
18. Arrange the following institutions of local government in U.K. in descending order. Use the codes given below:
(i) Metropolitan District
(ii) Metropolitan County
(iii) Parish
(iv) Shire
Codes:
(A) (i), (iv), (iii) and (ii)
(B) (ii), (i), (iv) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (i)
(D) (iv), (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: (B)
19. The City Manager as a Chief Executive in council-manager form of local government in USA is
(A) appointed by the State Governor
(B) appointed by the Council
(C) elected by the Council
(D) appointed by the Mayor
Answer: (B)
20. “The Development Administration is primarily concerned with the tasks and process of formulating and implementing the four P’s.” This statement was made by
(A) Donald C. Stones
(B) F.W. Riggs
(C) Weidner
(D) Luther Gullick
Answer: (A)
21. Who of the following expressed the view that administration in the developing countries is imitative rather than indigenous.”?
(A) Ferrel Heady
(B) David McClelland
(C) T.N. Chaturvedi
(D) Hahn Been Lee
Answer: (A)
22. Which of the following scholars is not correctly matched with the meaning of development given by him?
(A) Colm and Geiger – Change plus growth
(B) F.W. Riggs – Nation building and socioeconomic progress
(C) T.N. Chaturvedi – Transformation of society
(D) Hahn-Been Lee – Achievement of progressive political, economic and social objectives
Answer: (B)
23. Arrange the following publications in a correct sequence and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) The Frontiers of Development Administration.
(ii) Approaches to Development, Politics, Administration and Change
(iii) Political Order in Changing Societies
(iv) Cultural Hurdles in Development Administration: Concepts and Problems
Codes:
(A) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(D) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer: (A)
24. Development administration is a process for carrying out planned change in the economy, in agriculture or industry or capital infrastructure supporting either of these, and to a lesser extent, in the social service of the State.”
Who has given this statement?
(A) Milton J. Esman
(B) J. Montgomery
(C) Edward W. Weidner
(D) F.W. Riggs
Answer: (B)
25. The Cabinet in India is
(i) A Constitutional body
(ii) Part of the Council of Ministers
(iii) Institutionalised by usage
(iv) Policy making institution at highest level
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (D)
26. Assertion (A): Under the colonial raj, the predominant nature of administration was regulatory and maintenance of law and order.
Reason (R): As a matter of deliberate policy strategically sensitive positions in the Government were entrusted to British officers.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
27. Arrange the following reports in the chronological order. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Gopala Swamy Ayyangar Report
(ii) Appleby Report (First)
(iii) Gorwala Report
(iv) First Administrative Reforms Commission Report
Codes:
(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Answer: (B)
28. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
List – I (Prime Minister) List – II (Secretary/ Principal Secretary / Minister of State in PMO)
(A) Lal Bahadur Shastri L.K. Jha
(B) Indira Gandhi P.N. Haksar
(C) Rajiv Gandhi A.N. Verma
(D) P.V. Narsimha Rao Bhuvnesh Chaturvedi
Answer: (C)
29. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Commissions/ Committees) List – II (Chairperson)
a. Economic Administration Reforms Commission i. J.B. Kripalani
b. The Commission on Centre-State Relations ii. K. Santhanam
c. Committee on Prevention of Corruption iii. L.K. Jha
d. Railway Corruption Enquiry Committee iv. R.S. Sarkaria
Codes:
a b c d
(A) i ii iv iii
(B) iii iv ii i
(C) i iii iv ii
(D) iv ii iii i
Answer: (B)
30. Which one of the following is not a report of Second Administrative Reforms Commission?
(A) Unlocking Human Capital: Entitlements and Governance – A Case Study
(B) Social Capital – A Shared Destiny
(C) Capacity Building for Conflict Resolution
(D) Efficient Conduct of State Enterprises
Answer: (D)
31. Which of the following statements regarding All India Services are correct?
(i) New All-India Services may be created only if Council of States declares to do so by a majority resolution.
(ii) New All-India Services may be created if it is necessary or expedient in the national interest.
(iii) All-India Services may be created by a law passed by the Parliament.
(iv) All-India Judicial Service may also be created by Parliament bylaw.
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (B)
32. Before independence, the appointments to the All India Services were made by
(A) Governor-General-in-Council
(B) Secretary of State for India
(C) East India Company
(D) Cabinet Secretariatwww.netugc.com
Answer: (B)
33. “On the whole experience seems to show that the interests of the tax payers cannot be left to the spending departments.” This statement is made by
(A) First Hoover Commission
(B) Donoughmore Committee
(C) Haldane Committee
(D) Eleventh Finance Commission
Answer: (C)
34. Which of the following statements about the institution of C.A.G. in India is correct?
(A) It is a colonial legacy.
(B) It is an innovation of Independent India.
(C) It performs auditing and accounting functions.
(D) It is an executive agency of the Government of India.
Answer: (A)
35. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I Author List – II Books
a. K.L. Handa i. Parliamentary Financial Control
b. M.J.K. Thavraj ii. Programme and Performance Budgeting
c. Robert Presthus iii. Public Administration
d. P.K. Wattal iv. Financial Administration of India
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv ii iii i
(B) iii ii iv i
(C) i iii ii iv
(D) ii iv iii i
Answer: (D)
36. Assertion (A): The Finance Ministry exercises financial control over all the administrative ministries.
Reason (R): It is responsible for the formulation and exemption of the budget.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
37. Which of the following is not a feature of a good sample?
(A) Sample should be big in size.
(B) Sample should be representative of the universe.
(C) Sample should be reliable.
(D) Sample should be measurable by known probability sampling design technique.
Answer: (A)
38. Science is defined as
(i) an accumulation of systematic knowledge.
(ii) a method of approach to the entire empirical world.
(iii) an approach which aims at the finding of ultimate truth.
(iv) a mode of analysis that permits the scientist to state propositions.
Select the correct answer with the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Answer: (D)
39. Which one of the following is not a limitation of scientific method?
(A) Scientific explanation is never complete.
(B) It eliminates arbitrary and ambiguous opinion.
(C) Conclusions are never final.
(D) It is very difficult to oppose established opinion.
Answer: (B)
40. Which one of the following is not a limitation of Questionnaire method?
(A) Less expensive
(B) Problem of response
(C) Unsuitable for deeper study
(D) Less possibility of complete information
Answer: (A)
41. According to Goode and Hatt simple observation is most useful for which of the following?
(A) Exploratory Studies
(B) Descriptive Studies
(C) Diagnostic Studies
(D) Experimental Studies
Answer: (A)
42. Decentralization of functions and powers of headquarters to the field offices is known as
(A) Geographical decentralization
(B) Political decentralization
(C) Administrative decentralization
(D) Functional decentralization
Answer: (A)
43. Assertion (A): The plurality of organisations and departments at the District level has created many problems.
Reason (R): District Administration, in order to be effective, must have a unity of purpose and singularity of approach which is often found missing.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
44. Which of the following is not correct regarding developmental role of District Collector in India?
(A) He has a directive role in the scheme of Panchayati Raj.
(B) His position in relation to Panchayati Raj varies from State to State.
(C) He takes initiative to take up need based development programmes.
(D) He performs the role of coordinator and extends help in implementing development programmes.
Answer: (C)
45. Protection of natural environment in India is
(i) the responsibility of the State under the Constitution.
(ii) the fundamental duty of every citizen of India.
(iii) mandatory function of the NGOs.
(iv) the legal responsibility of the National Capital Region Planning Board.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (C)
46. Which of the following programmes are being implemented through the watershed development approach?
(i) Drought Prone Areas Programme
(ii) Desert Development Programme
(iii) Integrated Wasteland Development Programme
(iv) Integrated Rural Development Programme
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (B)
47. Which of the following is the rationale of privatisation/disinvestment in PSEs?
(i) Release of the large amount of public resources locked up in non-strategic PSEs.
(ii) Stemming the further outflow of the scarce public resources for sustaining the unviable nonstrategic PSEs.
(iii) Reducing the public debt.
(iv) Beneficial effect on the capital market.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (A)
48. “The growth of rural settlements which have acquired urban characteristics is very slow.” This observation about the process of urbanization in India was made in:
(A) 10th Five Year Plan
(B) 11th Five Year Plan
(C) National Sample Survey
(D) National Development Council
Answer: (B)
49. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Committees/ Commissions) List – II (Reports)
a. Haldane i. Report on Control of Expenditure
b. Plowden ii. Organisation of Executive Branch of Government
c. Mesterman iii. Report on Budgeting and Accounting Political Activities of the Civil Servants
d. Hoover iv. Report of Machinery of Government Committee
Codes:
a b c d
(A) iv iii ii i
(B) iv i iii ii
(C) i iv iii ii
(D) ii i iv iii
Answer: (B)
50. Which Five Year Plan has stressed upon the involvement of voluntary organization and specifically to supplement Government effort to offer the rural people choices and alternatives?
(A) Sixth Five Year Plan
(B) Seventh Five Year Plan
(C) Ninth Five Year Plan
(D) Eleventh Five Year Plan
Answer: (B)
51. Which one of the following is optimal model of policy-making according to Y. Dror?
(A) Pure Rational Model
(B) Incremental Model
(C) Economically Rational and Extra-rational Model
(D) Pure Rational and Economically Rational Model
Answer: (C)
52. Assertion (A): Public administration theorists, instead of political scientists, dominate the rationalist approach to policymaking and implementation.
Reason (R): New Public Management lays emphasis on the deeper role of public agencies in managing and delivery of public services.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
53. Put the following stages of rational policy planning process in the sequential order:
(i) Appraisal
(ii) Formulation of alternative courses of action
(iii) Discerning problem
(iv) Review
Select the correct answer by using codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer: (C)
54. Which of the following are the definitional elements of public policy?
(i) Declaration of goals
(ii) Proposed course of action
(iii) A declaration of general purpose
(iv) An authoritative decision
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (ii)
Answer: (A)
55. Which one of the following makes provisions for social security?
(A) Indian Contract Act
(B) Maternity Benefit Act
(C) Indian Industries Act
(D) Indian Companies Act
Answer: (B)
56. Policy analysis is concerned with
(A) Finding out the impact of policy
(B) Intuitive judgments about the effects of policy
(C) Prescription of policy rather than explanation of policy
(D) Finding out the contents of policy rather than the search for causes and consequences
Answer: (A)
57. Assertion (A): The role of the national planning agency in the formulation of fundamental social and economic policies is gradually diminishing.
Reason (R): Policies are now taking shape in a greater degree from debates in Parliament and from the play of new social and political forces within the community.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
58. Which is not a part of the Telecom Sector reforms in India?
(A) Corporatisation of telecom services.
(B) Grant of autonomy to Bharat Sanchar Nigam.
(C) Introduction of regulation.
(D) Adjusting to intellectual property regime.
Answer: (D)
59. Which one of the following is correct regarding ‘economic and social planning’?
(A) It is included in Union List.
(B) It is a part of the State List.
(C) It is incorporated in Concurrent List.
(D) It is not in any of the above stated lists.
Answer: (C)
60. Which of the following is known as the third sector of Indian economy?
(A) Public Sector
(B) Co-operatives
(C) Private Sector
(D) Joint Sector
Answer: (B)
61. Global Constitutionalism has impacted India’s economic policy in which of the following ways?
(i) It has led to liberalisation of trade.
(ii) It led to the introduction of competition in both the public and private sectors of economy.
(iii) It led to encouragement to FDI.
(iv) It led to adoption of the policy of privatisation.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iii), (iv) and (ii)
Answer: (C)
62. The Panchayati Raj Divas (Day) in India is celebrated on
(A) 21st April
(B) 24th April
(C) 2nd October
(D) 14th November
Answer: (B)
63. Lord Ripon’s Resolution on ‘Local- Self Government’ was adopted on
(A) 18th April, 1882
(B) 18th June, 1882
(C) 18th May, 1882
(D) 18th December, 1882
Answer: (C)
64. Which one of the following is not included in Eleventh Schedule of Constitution of India?
(A) Planning for economic and social development
(B) Non-conventional energy sources
(C) Poverty alleviation programme
(D) Technical training and vocational education
Answer: (A)
65. Which of the following is/are the recommendations of P.K. Thungon Committee?
(i) Fixed term of 5 years for Panchayati Raj Bodies.
(ii) The Panchayati Raj Bodies should not remain superseded for more than six months.
(iii) District Collector should be made the CEO of the Zila Parishad.
(iv) Setting up of State Finance Commission.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (iv) only
Answer: (A)
66. Which one of the following has prescribed a local Government led, community wide and participatory effort to establish a comprehensive action strategy for environmental protection, economic prosperity and community well being in the local jurisdiction?
(A) UN Millennium Development Goals
(B) Local Agenda 21
(C) World Urbanisation Prospects 2001
(D) An Urbanizing World: Global Report on Human Settlements
Answer: (B)
67. Assertion (A): Civil society organisations promote participative democratic practices.
Reason (R): The salient feature of participative democracy is the presence of a large number of voluntary agencies.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
68. MNREGA is a programme that is
(i) open to social audit
(ii) implemented by the Gram Panchayat at the village level
(iii) implemented by the village development officer and Gram Panchayat at the village level
(iv) meant for all unskilled able bodied persons desirous to seek work
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (C)
69. Assertion (A): Rural Development Programmes suffer from lack of effective monitoring and evaluation.
Reason (R): Rural Development Administration is deficient in professionalism and have multiplicity of authorities.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
70. Arrange the following in a chronological order:
(i) Rural-Urban Relationship Committee
(ii) National Commission on Urbanisation
(iii) Taxation Inquiry Committeewww.netugc.com
(iv) Local Finance Inquiry Committee
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Answer: (C)
71. Rural Development means:
(i) Provision of social services
(ii) Improving infrastructure facilities
(iii) Providing economic help to the individuals and groups for self employment
(iv) Capacity building of rural local government
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (A)
72. Arrange the following programmes for rural development in a sequence and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(i) Intensive Area Development Scheme
(ii) Tribal Area Development Programme
(iii) Drought-prone Area Programme
(iv) Command Area Development Programme
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (ii), (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (iv), (iii), (i) and (ii)
(D) (ii), (iv), (i) and (iii)
Answer: (B)
73. National Capital Region Planning Board is
(A) Statutory Body
(B) Created by an executive order
(C) Established by the Planning Commission
(D) Created by the Ministry of Urban Development under judicial direction
Answer: (A)
74. The Community Development Programme was started on the recommendation of
(A) Krishnamachari Committee
(B) Project Appraisal Committee
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
Answer: (A)
75. Which of the following statements are correct about the rural cooperatives?
(i) They are schools of social dialogue and democracy.
(ii) They are based on the values of self-help and self responsibility.
(iii) They can transform survival type of activities into legally protected and productive work.
(iv) Their members are generally both producers and beneficiaries.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: (D)