2013 December UGC NET Solved Question Paper in Tourism Administration and Management, Paper III

1. Mr. Hector Ceballos-Lascurain is credited for coining which term?

(A) Ecotourism

(B) Nature tourism

(C) Sustainable tourism

(D) Sex tourism

Answer: (A)

 

2. The trail blazing research publication “Tourism Ecotourism and Protection areas” was published in 1996 by

(A) U.N. World Tourism Organisation

(B) World Conservation Union

(C) World Conservation Organisation

(D) World Wildlife Fund

Answer: (B)

 

3. Assertion (A): If the masses were to take to ecotourism in a big, aggressive manner, ecotourism would turn out to have negative connotations.

Reason (R): Ecotourism should never have mass concentration. It should be extensive, not intensive.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation.

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

 

4. TERN was established in 2006 and managed by UNWTO for Risk and crisis management. What is TERN?

(A) Tourism Emergency Response Network

(B) Tourism Emergency Regulation Network

(C) Tourism Emergency Response Netlog

(D) Tourism Emergency Regulation Netlog

Answer: (A)

 

5. Push factors in Tourism are

(A) Facilities

(B) Prestige

(C) Services

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

 

6. Pull factors in Tourism are

(A) Rest and Relaxation

(B) Escape

(C) Amenities

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

 

7. UFTAA divides the world into how many regions?

(A) 7

(B) 8

(C) 11

(D) 12

Answer: (C)

 

8. Arrange the following railway properties according to the year they appeared on the world heritage list:

I. Darjeeling Mountain Railway

II. Nilgiris Mountain Railway

III. Kalka-Shimla Railway

IV. C.S.T. Mumbai

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) I, III, II, IV

(C) I, IV, II, III

(D) IV, III, II, I

Answer: (B)

 

9. The following are relevant to Thar Desert. Use the code:

I. Luni River

II. Camels

III. Sedimentary Rocks

IV. Crescent shape dunes

Codes:

(A) I, II, III, IV are correct

(B) I, II are correct

(C) I, II, IV are correct

(D) I, IV are correct

Answer: (C)

 

10. What is the Vehicle (Vahana) of Goddess river Ganga?

(A) Tortoise

(B) Crocodile

(C) Dolphin

(D) Serpant

Answer: (D)

11. Under which tree did Queen Mayadevi give birth to Siddharth?

(A) Ashoka

(B) Peepal

(C) Neem

(D) Shala

Answer: (D)

 

12. This consists of two lists of places and temples and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:

List – I (Places)                                                           List – II (Temples)

i. Jharkhand                                                                 1. Vishnupad

ii. Chhattisgarh                                                            2. Virupaksh

iii. Karnataka                                                               3. Vaidyanath temple

iv. Bihar                                                                      4. Danteshwari

Codes:

      (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(B) (4) (3) (2) (1)

(C) (2) (1) (3) (4)

(D) (3) (4) (2) (1)

Answer: (D)

 

13. This consists of two lists of statement phobia and terms and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:

List – I (Phobia)                                                                      List – II (Statement)

i. Hodophobia                                                                                     1. Fear of cooking

ii. Pteromerhano phobia                                                          2. Fear of height

iii. Mageiroco phobia                                                              3. Fear of travelwww.netugc.com

iv. Acrophobia                                                                        4. Fear of flying

Codes:

      (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) (4) (3) (1) (2)

(B) (4) (3) (2) (1)

(C) (3) (4) (1) (2)

(D) (4) (2) (1) (3)

Answer: (C)

 

14. “Bibi-ka-Maqbara” the replica of the Taj Mahal is located in which city?

(A) Ahmedabad

(B) Aurangabad

(C) Ahmednagar

(D) Ahmedpur

Answer: (B)

 

15. “Partie” system is an organizational structure for

(A) Dividing the housekeeping department into various sections

(B) Dividing the front office department into various sections

(C) Dividing the food and beverage service department into various sections

(D) Dividing the kitchen into various sections

Answer: (D)

 

16. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(A) Chilling dishes at 3 °C immediately after cooking and holding at 0 ° to 3 °C – Cook chill

(B) Freezing food to–18 °C to –20 °C soon after cooking and holding them at this temperature till required – Cook freeze

(C) Chilling dishes to 36 °C immediately after cooking and holding at this temperature – Blast chilling

(D) Freezing dishes to –18 °C to –20 °C immediately after cooking and holding at this temperature – Blast freezing

Answer: (C)

 

17. Assertion (A): Standard recipe is a written document on the method of preparing a dish with portion size, list of ingredients and their quantity.

Reason (R): Standard operating instruction for the department to perform its task for food preparation.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

 

18. The overhead cost is considered in menu pricing which include the following:

(A) Food cost, Labour cost, rent and rates

(B) All expenses except food cost and labour cost

(C) Labour cost, gas, electricity, water and telephones

(D) Food cost, gas, electricity, rent and rates

Answer: (B)

 

19. Following are the duties of a Front Office Manager:

I. Recommend and monitor a front office budget and plan for the year.

II. Lead, train and motivate front office team

III. Approve expenses of the Front Office Department

IV. Ensure the safety and hygiene of the Front Office and its staff.

(A) I, II, III and IV are correct.

(B) I, II and III are correct.

(C) II, III and IV are correct.

(D) I and IV are correct.

Answer: (A)

 

20. This consists of two lists of alternative forms of lodging and accommodation:

List – I (Term)                         List – II (Statements)

i. Paradors                               1. Travellers are provided with overnight lodging at rock bottom prices

ii. Pensions                              2. Old buildings converted into hostels by government and offer at reasonable prices with full meal plans.

iii. Condominiums                   3. Large home that was turned into a guest house offer food and lodging

iv. Youth hostels                     4. Individually owned residential units under common management offer apartment style accommodation with kitchen facilities

Codes:

      (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(B) (3) (2) (1) (4)

(C) (2) (3) (4) (1)

(D) (4) (1) (2) (3)

Answer: (C)

21. Assertion (A): Hotel business is very lucrative as it satisfies two physiological needs of all human beings – shelter and food.

Reason (R): Hotel specializes in providing facilities and amenities to the business corporate.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation.

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (C)

 

22. Which is an open jaw itinerary?

(A) Delhi → Chennai → Mammalapuram → Madurai → Delhi

(B) Delhi → Nagpur → Chennai

(C) Chennai → Madurai → Cochin → Chennai

(D) Kolkata → Bhubaneshwar → Chennai → Kolkata

Answer: (A)

 

23. Which are the dangerous goods in airlines?

(a) Copra

(b) Adhesives

(c) Mercury

(d) Bleaching Powder

(A) (a), (b) only

(B) (c), (d) only

(C) All of them

(D) None of them

Answer: (C)

 

24. Which is a Green field airport?

(A) Indira Gandhi Airport, Delhi

(B) Rajiv Gandhi Airport, Hyderabad

(C) Birsa Munda Airport, Ranchi

(D) Lok Nayak Jay Prakash Airport, Patna

Answer: (B)

 

25. The free baggage allowance for first class and business class passengers in airlines is

(A) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions does not exceed 145 cms for each bag.

(B) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions does not exceed 158 cms for each bag.

(C) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions does not exceed 268 cms for each bag.

(D) 2 bags (pieces) where the total of the 3 dimensions does not exceed 278 cms for each bag.

Answer: (B)

 

26. Calculate the flying time if a flight leaves Detroit (–0500 hrs) at 1405 hrs and arrives Mumbai (+0530 hrs) at 2300 hrs next day

(A) 22:25 hrs

(B) 20:25 hrs

(C) 18:35 hrs

(D) 18:25 hrs

Answer: (A)

 

27. This consists of two lists of railway zones and headquarters and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:

List – I (Railway Zones)                                                         List – II (Headquarter)

i. Central                                                                                 1. Mumbai (Churchgate)

ii. North Central                                                                      2. Allahabad

iii. East Central                                                                       3. Hajipur

iv. Western                                                                              4. Mumbai (CST)

Codes:

      (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(B) (4) (3) (2) (1)

(C) (4) (2) (3) (1)

(D) (1) (3) (2) (4)www.netugc.com

Answer: (B)

 

28. Which section of waterways are declared as National Waterway?

I. Allahabad – Haldia

II. Sadia – Dhubri

III. Kottapuram – Kollam

IV. Jabalpur – Surat

(A) I, II & III are correct

(B) II & III are correct

(C) None of the above is correct

(D) All of the above are correct

Answer: (A)

 

29. Arrange the following Global Distribution Systems based on the year of its introduction:

I. SABRE

II. SMART

III. AMADEUS

IV. WORLD SPAN

(A) I, II, III, IV

(B) II, III, IV, I

(C) III, IV, I, II

(D) IV, III, II, I

Answer: (A)

 

30. Following countries come under IATA Traffic Conference Area – I

I. U.S.A.

II. Greenland

III. Iceland

IV. Russia

(A) I and III are correct

(B) I and II are correct

(C) III and IV are correct

(D) I and IV are correct

Answer: (B)

 

31. Which countries are not part of the European Union, but member of Schengen VISA?

(A) Finland and Denmark

(B) United Kingdom and Portugal

(C) Norway and Iceland

(D) Spain and Greece

Answer: (C)

 

32. Travel propensity is a measure of

(A) The percentage of a population engaging in tourism

(B) The ratio of day trip to overnight visits.

(C) Tourism market share of a country

(D) Frequency of travel of a population

Answer: (D)

 

33. Which Sea attracts over 160 million tourists a year?

(A) Mediterranean Sea

(B) Caribbean Sea

(C) South China Sea

(D) Caspian Sea

Answer: (A)

 

34. Which of the following is not a London based airport?

(A) South Hampton

(B) Heathrow

(C) Gatwick

(D) Stansted

Answer: (A)

 

35. “Petra” one of the seven wonders is located in

(A) Syria

(B) Lebanon

(C) Jordon

(D) Israel

Answer: (C)

 

36. This consists of two lists of air ports and city and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:

List – I (Airport)                                                         List – II (City)

i. Swami Vivekananda Airport                                   1. Ranchi

ii. Birsa Munda Airport                                               2. Raipur

iii. Chaudhary Charan Singh Airport                          3. Varanasi

iv. Lal Bahadur Shastri Airport                                  4. Lucknow

Codes:

      (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(B) (4) (3) (2) (1)

(C) (2) (1) (4) (3)

(D) (4) (2) (1) (3)

Answer: (C)

 

37. Which pairs are correctly matched?

List – I (Airlines)                                                                    List – II (Headquarter)

I. Cathay Pacific                                                                     1. Sharjah

II. Lufthansa                                                                           2. Cologne

III. Emirates                                                                            3. Hong Kong

IV. KLM                                                                                 4. Amsterdam

Codes:

(A) I & III are correct.

(B) II & IV are correct

(C) All are correct

(D) None of them are correct

Answer: (B)

 

38. The production concept in marketing emphasis on

(A) High quality goods

(B) Large volume of goods

(C) The product with best possible features

(D) Products and services emphasising on environment

Answer: (B)

 

39. A skeptical buyer is one

(A) who makes impulsive purchase

(B) who carefully weighs the cost and benefit

(C) has a negative image about product

(D) is keen to return the product

Answer: (B)

 

40. “REVPAR” is a test which

(A) measures income before fixed cost

(B) insists on performance measures based on increase in operating margins

(C) assumes that room revenue is a good indicator of a hotel’s overall performance

(D) indicates what a business unit wants to achieve

Answer: (C)

 

41. The percentage relationship of an organization’s sales to total industry sales referred as

(A) Market share

(B) Profit maximization

(C) Target rate of return

(D) Direct response sales

Answer: (A)

 

42. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(A) It is one of the theory of motivation                                            – Behavioural theory

(B) It is a strategy to differentiate products and companies              – Branding

(C) Tourism products and attractions                                                 – Pull factors

(D) The film produced by the Ministry of Tourism                            – Himalayan Adventure

Answer: (A)

 

43. Which one of the following key statistics is not associated with factor analysis?

(A) Bartlett’s test of sphericity

(B) Communality

(C) Eigen value

(D) MANOVA

Answer: (D)

 

44. Which one of the following is not the probability sampling method?

(A) Systematic sampling

(B) Snowball sampling

(C) Cluster sampling

(D) Stratified sampling

Answer: (B)

 

45. This consists of two lists of types of validity and its meaning and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:

List – I (Types of Validity)                             List – II (Meaning)

i. Content validity                                           1. It addresses the question of what construct or characteristic the scale is measuring

ii. Criterion validity                                         2. It measures the extent to which the scale correlates positively with other measures of the same construct

iii. Construct validity                                      3. It consists of a subjective but systematic evaluation of the representativeness the content of a scale for measuring task at hand

iv. Convergent validity                                   4. It examines whether the measurement scale performs as expected in relation to other variables selected as meaningful criteria

Codes:

      (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) (1) (3) (4) (2)

(B) (4) (3) (2) (1)

(C) (2) (3) (1) (2)

(D) (3) (4) (1) (2)

Answer: (D)

 

46. Which one of the following is not a comparative scale?

(A) Rank order

(B) Constant sum

(C) Q-sort

(D) Likert

Answer: (D)

 

47. The process of monitoring performance, comparing it with goals and correcting any significant deviations is known as

(A) Planning

(B) Organizing

(C) Leading

(D) Controlling

Answer: (D)

 

48. The attitude that regards home country management practices as superior to foreign country practices is known as

(A) Ethnocentric

(B) Polycentric

(C) Geocentric

(D) Isocentric

Answer: (A)

 

49. Strategic planning is best described by the statement from the following:

(A) Facts are difficult to gather and plans cover short period of time.

(B) Facts are difficult to gather and plans cover long period of time.

(C) Facts are easy to gather and plans are developed mainly by upper level managers.

(D) Facts are easy to gather and plans are developed mainly by lower level managers.

Answer: (B)

 

50. The sales forecasting technique that utilizes specialized knowledge based on interaction with customers is

(A) sum of executive opinion

(B) sales force estimation

(C) time series analysis

(D) all of the above

Answer: (B)

 

51. Extreme division of labour tends to result in

(A) Human motivation

(B) Boring jobs

(C) Non-specialized work

(D) Decreased work skill

Answer: (B)

 

52. From the view point of staff personnel, a major reason for line staff conflict is that line personnel

(A) do not make proper use of staff personnel

(B) resist new ideas

(C) do not give staff personnel enough authority

(D) all of the above

Answer: (D)

 

53. Operating risk is the risk of the firm not being able to cover its

(A) Fixed operating cost

(B) Financial leverage

(C) Operating leverage

(D) Debit service coverage

Answer: (A)

 

54. A lending institution, in case of term loans is concerned with examining the company’s

(A) Profitability

(B) Debit equity ratio

(C) Increase in retained earning

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

 

55. Trade credit is known as

(A) The credit extended by the supplier of goods and services in the normal course of business.

(B) The credit extended to the supplier of goods and services in the normal course of business.

(C) The credit extended by the customer of the goods and services in the normal course of business.

(D) The credit extended to the customer of the goods and services in the normal course of business.

Answer: (A)

 

56. Which of the following is the essential element of leasing?

(A) Assets

(B) Term of lease

(C) Parties of the contract

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

 

57. Arrange the following in the order in which they appeared. Use the code given below:

I. National Committee on Tourism

II. National Strategy for Promotion of Tourism

III. Tourism Finance Corporation

IV. National Action Plan for Tourism

Codes:

(A) IV, III, II, I

(B) I, III, IV, II

(C) II, IV, III, I

(D) I, II, III, IV

Answer: (B)

 

58. Which one of the following objectives of the National Tourism Policy, 2002 is to provide impetus to the vast rural tourism attractions of India?

(A) First

(B) Third

(C) Fifth

(D) Seventh

Answer: (D)

 

59. Hospitality dimension of tourism is given much importance for the first time in the history of tourism development in India in which policy?

(A) Tourism Policy 1982

(B) National Action Plan of Tourism 1992

(C) National Tourism Policy 2002

(D) National Strategy for Tourism Promotion

Answer: (C)

 

60. The concept of hospitality includes the following:

(A) Welcome (Swagat), Information (Suchana)

(B) Facilitation (Suvidha), Safety (Suraksha)

(C) Cooperation (Sahyog), Infrastructure development (Samrachana)

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

 

61. According to Butler, the main approaches to impact mitigation are

(A) changing the tourist typewww.netugc.com

(B) changing the resource for resistance

(C) curbing tourist numbers

(D) all of the above

Answer: (D)

 

62. What is India’s rank in world Tourism receipts in the year 2011?

(A) 15

(B) 17

(C) 19

(D) 21

Answer: (B)

 

63. Which State ranks first in the number of Foreign Tourists visits in 2011?

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Tamil Nadu

(C) Delhi

(D) Rajasthan

Answer: (A)

 

64. How many times India has been elected to the Chairmanship of the Executive Council of UNWTO?

(A) One

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

Answer: (B)

 

65. Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA) has signed loan agreements to undertake the Ajanta-Ellora Development and Conservation Project (Phase II). The loan assistance is

(A) 6887 Japanese Yen

(B) 7331 Japanese Yen

(C) 7687 Japanese Yen

(D) 8011 Japanese Yen

Answer: (B)

 

66. Market Development Assistance Scheme (MDA) administered by the Ministry of Tourism, Government of India, provides financial support to approved tourism service providers for

(A) Sales cum study tour

(B) Participation in fairs/ exhibitions

(C) Publicity through printed material

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

 

67. Assertion (A): Tourism will only flourish given the appropriate conditions. It is an industry which like any other industry requires sophisticated planning and organisation if its full potential is to be realized.

Reason (R): This must be done with the needs of host community as a major focal point.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

 

68. Which one of the following is not a part of the interactive planning?

I. Includes information feedback, consultation and negotiation.

II. Interaction occurs early on and throughout the planning process with full range of stakeholders.

Codes:

(A) I is correct.

(B) II is correct.

(C) Both I and II are correct.

(D) Both I and II are wrong.

Answer: (C)

 

69. The following Committee recommended that the public sector should assume a more active and positive role in promoting tourism.

(A) Sargeant Committee

(B) Jha Committee

(C) Yunus Committee

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

 

70. It is the first State in India to be accorded the status of partner State of the World Travel and Tourism Council

(A) Kerala

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) Jammu & Kashmir

Answer: (A)

 

Read the passage below and answer the question that follow based on understanding of the passage. Answer the questions (71-75).

Tourism demand forecasts are traditionally generated by either quantitative or qualitative approaches. According to a comprehensive reveal by Li et al (2005), 420 studies on the topic of tourism demand forecasting were published during the period 1960 – 2002.

Most attention was directed at the development of advanced statistical forecasting methods including both time series and econometric approaches. Time series methods use past patterns in data to extrapolate future values and whilst time series approaches are useful tools for tourism demand forecasting, a major limitation of these methods is that they cannot be used for policy evaluation purposes. By contrast, econometric models, which estimate the quantitative relationship between tourism demand and its determinants, can be used for policy evaluation. The large body of literature that has been published on tourism demand forecasting using modern econometric technique is reviewed by Li et al (2005).

 

71. During the period 1960-2002, 420 studies completed and based on

(A) Quantitative Approach

(B) Qualitative Approach

(C) Quantitative and Qualitative Approach

(D) Time-series Approach

Answer: (C)

 

72. Time-series methods are

(A) To use past patterns in data to extrapolate future values

(B) To use data to know the past pattern of tourism

(C) To use the data to explore the future pattern of tourism

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

 

73. Time-series methods are useful for

(A) knowing the data and to work out the number of tourists

(B) making forecasting for future tourist demand and supply.

(C) identifying the tourist attractions and a number of tourists

(D) developing tourism sites and destinations

Answer: (B)

 

74. For policy evaluation the following research method is not so useful:

(A) Time-series method

(B) Economic method

(C) Survey method

(D) Snowballing method

Answer: (A)

 

75. For policy evaluation useful method is

(A) Quantitative, Qualitative economic approaches

(B) Comprehensive economic model

(C) Econometric method

(D) Moving average data

Answer: (C)

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