2013 June UGC NET Solved Question Paper in Social Medicine and Community Health, Paper III

1. Which of the following is a vaccine preventable disease?

(A) Malaria

(B) HIV/AIDS

(C) Poliomyelitis

(D) Dengue fever

Answers: (C)

 

2. Sex ratio in the Indian context is expressed as

(A) Number of males per 1000 females.

(B) Number of females per 1000 males.

(C) Number of males per 100 females.

(D) Number of females per 100 males.

Answers: (B)

 

3. Use of Oral Rehydration solution in place of Intravenous fluids for treating mild dehydration is an example of

(A) Equitable distribution

(B) Inter-sectoral co-ordination

(C) Appropriate technology

(D) Community participation

Answers: (C)

 

4. Orthotoluidine test determines

(A) Free chlorine

(B) Residual chlorine

(C) Combined chlorine

(D) Both free and combined chlorine

Answers: (D)

 

5. Sentinal surveillance is done for identifying

(A) Missed cases

(B) Index case

(C) Sub-clinical cases

(D) Carriers

Answers: (A)

 

6. Anti-tetanus serum is prepared from

(A) Rat

(B) Rabbit

(C) Guinea pig

(D) Horse

Answers: (D)

 

7. Sensitivity of a screening test is theability to correctly identify

(A) True positives

(B) True negatives

(C) False positives

(D) False negatives

Answers: (A)

 

8. Minimum interval between two doses of Vaccines should be

(A) 2 weeks

(B) 4 weeks

(C) 6 weeks

(D) 8 weeks

Answers: (B)

 

9.AedesAegypti is a vector that transmits

(A) Malaria

(B) Filaria

(C) Dengue fever

(D) Diarrhoeal Diseases

Answers: (C)www.netugc.com

 

10. Which of the following countries comes under W.H.O. South East Asia Region?

(A) Pakistan

(B) Afghanistan

(C) Myanmar

(D) Egypt

Answers: (C)

11. Ergonomics refers to

(A) Social Engineering

(B) Genetic Engineering

(C) Human Engineering

(D) Occupational Alterations

Answers: (C)

 

12. Cereals are deficient in which amino acid?

(A) Lysine

(B) Methionine

(C) Leucine

(D) Tryptophans

Answers: (A)

 

13. Which of the following is the most important cause of Infant Mortality in India?

(A) Respiratory infections

(B) Low Birth Weight (LBW)

(C) Diarrhoeal Diseases

(D) Cord infections

Answers: (B)

 

14. Which of the following is the maximum intensity of sound that can be tolerated by humans on a daily basis in decibels (dB) without substantial damage to their hearing?

(A) 60 dB

(B) 85 dB

(C) 100 dB

(D) 120 dB

Answers: (B)

 

15. Which of the following is the goal to be achieved by 2015 as per the National Health Policy 2002?

(A) Eradicate Polio and Yaws

(B) Eliminate Leprosy

(C) Eliminate Lymphatic Filariasis

(D) Achieve Zero growth of HIV/AIDS

Answers: (C)

 

16. The term ‘Comprehensive health care’ was used for the first time by which of the following committees?

(A) Bhore Committee

(B) Mukerji Committee

(C) Jungalwalla Committee

(D) Kartar Singh Committee

Answers: (A)

 

17. The Births, Deaths and Marriages Registration Act was passed by the Government of India in the year:

(A) 1872

(B) 1975

(C) 1873

(D) 1985

Answers: (C)

 

18. Which of the following areas in India is ‘Rabies Free’?

(A) Goa

(B) Nagland

(C) Sikkim

(D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Answers: (D)

 

19. In which one of the following cities was the First International Sanitary Conference held in the year 1851?

(A) Geneva

(B) Paris

(C) Copenhagen

(D) London

Answers: (B)

 

20. Which one of the following indices is regarded as the most sensitive index of recent transmission of malaria in a locality?

(A) Parasite Rate

(B) Spleen Rate

(C) Infant Parasite Rate

(D) Average Enlarged spleen

Answers: (C)

21. The impact indicator for monitoring ASHA’s work set up by the Government of India is

(A) Percentage of children with diarrhoea receiving ORS.

(B) Percentage of institutional deliveries.

(C) Percentage of ASHA’s attending review meetings.

(D) Child Malnutrition rates.

Answers: (D)

 

22. Which of the following of the millennium Development Goals is to ‘Develop a global partnership for development’?

(A) Goal 5

(B) Goal 4

(C) Goal 8

(D) Goal 1

Answers: (C)

 

23. The target age group for measles catch up campaign is

(A) 9 months to 5 years

(B) 9 months to 6 years

(C) 9 months to 10 years

(D) 9 months to 14 years

Answers: (C)

 

24. In the Revised National Tuberculosis Control Program a Designated Microscopy centre is established for:

(A) 1 Lakh in plains and 10,000 in tribal and mountainous areas.

(B) 1 Lakh in plains and 50,000 in tribal and mountainous areas.

(C) 50,000 in plains and 10,000 in tribal and mountainous areas.

(D) 50,000 in plains and 20,000 in tribal and mountainous areas.

Answers: (B)

 

25. Under the ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’ which of the following is the amount of cash assistance given to mother’s delivering in a health institution/ health centre, in a low performing state?

(A) Rs. 700

(B) Rs. 600

(C) Rs. 1,400

(D) Rs. 900

Answers: (C)

 

26. What is the recommended management of a child who is found allergic to DPT?

(A) Give DTaP/DT instead of remaining doses of DPT.

(B) Give DT only instead of remaining doses of DPT.

(C) Give TT only instead of remaining doses of DPT.

(D) Give DPT after two weeks and continue with remaining doses.

Answers: (A)

 

27. Which one of the following conditions is under Regular Surveillance under Integrated Disease Surveillance programme?

(A) Leprosy

(B) Road Traffic Accidents

(C) Anthrax

(D) Rabies

Answers: (B)

 

28. Which of the following is the value fixed for minimum level of iodine in salt at consumer level under Prevention of Food Adulteration Act.?

(A) 30 PPM

(B) 100 PPM

(C) 20 PPM

(D) 15 PPM

Answers: (D)

 

29. At what level of Net Reproduction Rate is the reproductive performance of the population below replacement level?

(A) 1

(B) Less than 1

(C) More than 1

(D) 1.5

Answers: (B)

 

30. The term family size in demography refers to

(A) Total number of persons in a family.

(B) Total number of daughters a woman has borne at a point in time.

(C) Total number of children a woman has borne at a point in time.

(D) Total number of children a woman has borne between the ages of 15-45 years.

Answers: (C)

 

31. Which infectious disease has longest incubation period?

(A) Diphtheria

(B) Plague

(C) Malaria

(D) Leprosy

Answers: (D)

 

32. Which infectious disease has no carrier state?

(A) Typhoid

(B) Hepatitis B

(C) Tuberculosis

(D) Gonorrhoea

Answers: (C)

 

33. How many K cal/day are required by sedentary adult women?

(A) 1500

(B) 1775

(C) 1875

(D) 2100

Answers: (C)

 

34. What is the amount of saturated fatty acids in Ghee (gm/100 gm)?

(A) 60

(B) 65

(C) 70

(D) 75

Answers: (B)

 

35. One tablespoon contents is equal to

(A) 1 ml

(B) 5 ml

(C) 10 ml

(D) 15 ml

Answers: (D)

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36. The Dose of BCG vaccine for new born child is

(A) 0.01 ml

(B) 0.02 ml

(C) 0.05 ml

(D) 0.1 ml

Answers: (C)

 

37. Antirabic treatment is not indicated for

(A) Wild Animal bite

(B) Cow bite

(C) Dog bite

(D) Rat bite

Answers: (D)

 

38. IQ range for normal person is (By Binet& Simon test)

(A) 50 to 69

(B) 70 to 79

(C) 80 to 89

(D) Above 89

Answers: (D)

 

39. The oldest public health law is

(A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act

(B) ESIS Act

(C) The Epidemic Diseases Act

(D) The Factories Act

Answers: (C)

 

40. In a large scale purification of water the optimum storage of river water should be

(A) upto 2 days

(B) 2 to 10 days

(C) 10 to 14 days

(D) 15 to 20 days

Answers: (C)

 

41. Recommended illumination in Lux for casual reading is

(A) 100

(B) 150

(C) 200

(D) 250

Answers: (A)

 

42. Sound level for jet take off in dB is

(A) 50

(B) 100

(C) 150

(D) 200

Answers: (C)

 

43. The concentration of DDT dust for control of fleas required is

(A) 10 %

(B) 20 %

(C) 25 %

(D) 30 %

Answers: (A)

 

44. Which of the following is not included as vital event?

(A) Death

(B) Fetal death

(C) Injury

(D) Divorce

Answers: (C)

 

45. The Alma Ata Declaration was made in

(A) 1948

(B) 1978

(C) 1988

(D) 2008

Answers: (B)

 

46. Hardy Weinberg Law relates to

(A) Population genetics

(B) Demography

(C) Social structure

(D) Incidence and prevalence of disease

Answers: (A)

 

47. Which of the following has a protective effect on coronary heart disease?

(A) Low Density Lipoproteins (LDL)

(B) Very Low Density Lipoproteins (VLDL)

(C) High Density Lipoproteins (HDL)

(D) Very High Density Lipoproteins (VHDL)

Answers: (C)

 

48. The scatter diagrammes represent

(A) Constants

(B) Characteristics

(C) Regressions

(D) Correlations

Answers: (A)

 

49. Random allocation of subjects to study and control groups is undertaken in

(A) Cross sectional study

(B) Case control study

(C) Cohort study

(D) Clinical trial

Answers: (D)

 

50. Auto infection is possible in

(A) Echinococcosis

(B) Enterobiasis

(C) Dracunculosis

(D) Filariasis

Answers: (B)

 

51. Mean root squared deviation is

(A) Variance

(B) Mean deviation

(C) Standard deviation

(D) Co-efficient of variation

Answers: (C)

 

52. The theme of WHO day during 2013 was related to

(A) Environment

(B) Blood Pressure

(C) Diabetes

(D) Coronary Heart Disease(CHD)

Answers: (B)

 

53. Protection offered by ‘Herd Immunity’ in the community is due to

(A) Immune people acting as barrier.

(B) Environmental sharing.

(C) Passive transfer of disease agent.

(D) Common social practices.

Answers: (A)

 

54. Time period between detection by screening test and standard diagnostic test is known as

(A) Lag time

(B) Generation time

(C) Latent period

(D) Lead time

Answers: (D)

 

55. Incidence can be found out by conducting

(A) Case control study

(B) Cross sectional study

(C) Ecological study

(D) Cohort study

Answers: (D)

 

56. Secondary attack rate is a measure of

(A) Communicability

(B) Sub clinical cases

(C) Exposure to carriers

(D) Immunization coverage in the population

Answers: (A)

 

57. Confounding factor is associated to

(A) Both exposure and disease

(B) Disease only

(C) Exposure only

(D) Neither disease nor exposure

Answers: (A)

 

58. Severity of acute diseases can be best measured by

(A) Age specific death rate.

(B) Cause specific death rate.

(C) Proportional mortality rate.

(D) Case fatality rate.

Answers: (D)

 

59. For calculation of positive predictive value the denominator is

(A) True positives + false negatives

(B) False positives + True negatives

(C) True positives + false positives

(D) True positives + True negatives

Answers: (C)

 

60. In right sided skewed distribution the median is

(A) Smaller than the mean

(B) Larger than the mean

(C) Equal to the mean

(D) At any position in relation to the mean

Answers: (A)

 

61. During 2003-04 long distance migration across countries contributed to the speed of

(A) AIDS

(B) SARS

(C) Chikangunia

(D) Dengue

Answers: (B)

 

62. ‘Bills of Mortality’ laid the foundation of systematic registration and use of death records. Who among the following is associated with it?

(A) John Stuart Mill

(B) Edwin Chadwick

(C) Robert Malthus

(D) Talcott Parsons

Answers: (A)

 

63. Which of the following will be an appropriate sampling technique for studying nutritional disparity among lactating women in the catchment area of a Primary Health Centre?

(A) Simple Random Sampling

(B) Stratified Random Sampling

(C) Systematic Random Sampling

(D) Cluster Sampling

Answers: (B)

 

64. Recently the advertisement for a contraceptive was removed from being aired in the media. Name the contraceptive

(A) NET-EN

(B) Cyclofem

(C) i-pill

(D) DEPO-PROVERA

Answers: (C)

 

65. Which of the following are not associated with Public Health?

(A) John Snow

(B) Edwin Chadwin

(C) Eric Ross

(D) P.B. Shelley

Answers: (D)

 

66. ‘Nirmal Gram Puraskar’ is given to a village which is

(A) Providing safe drinking water to all.

(B) Open defaecation free.

(C) Well connected with the nearest town.

(D) Providing education all children below 12 years free of cost.

Answers: (B)

 

67. The Report of the Macroeconomic Commission on Health is the best recognised as

(A) WHO Bulletin of Health

(B) Social Determinants of Health

(C) Annual Health Survey

(D) UN Report on Health

Answers: (B)

 

68. The nodal agency for the conduct and monitoring of National Family Health Surveys in India is

(A) International Institute for Population Services, Mumbai.

(B) National Institute of Medical Statistics, New Delhi.

(C) Institute for Research in Reproduction, Mumbai.

(D) Public Health Foundation of India.

Answers: (A)

 

69. Sex ratio at birth is affected by

(A) Crude birth rate

(B) Pre-natal diagnostic test

(C) Total fertility rate

(D) Maternal health

Answers: (D)

 

70. ‘World Health Day’ is observed on which of the following days?www.netugc.com

(A) 01 January

(B) 07 April

(C) 05 June

(D) 02 October

Answers: (B)

 

71. The normative population size for a sub centre in the plain region is

(A) 1,000 persons

(B) 5,000 persons

(C) 3,000 persons

(D) 2,000 persons

Answers: (B)

 

72. Population dynamics is constituted by fertility, mortality and

(A) Urbanisation

(B) Migration

(C) Industrialisation

(D) Globalisation

Answers: (B)

 

73. Among the following countries, which has the lowest maternal mortality?

(A) Norway

(B) Germany

(C) France

(D) China

Answers: (Wrong question)

 

74. ‘Health and Development Committee’ is better known as

(A) Srivastava Committee

(B) Barve Committee

(C) Mudaliar Committee

(D) Bhore Committee

Answers: (D)

 

75. Which of the Indian cities from among the following was adjudged the cleanest in India after being hit by an epidemic during 1994?

(A) Delhi

(B) Chennai

(C) Surat

(D) Indore

Answers: (C)

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