2012 June UGC NET Solved Question Paper in Social Medicine and Community Health, Paper III

1. All diseases are included in internationally notifiable diseases except

(A) Tuberculosis

(B) Cholera

(C) Plague

(D) Yellow fever

Answer: (A)


2. First country to socialize medicine completely rows

(A) Hungary

(B) Britain

(C) Russia

(D) Germany

Answer: (C)


3. Efficiency of measles vaccine is

(A) 55%

(B) 75%

(C) 85%

(D) 95%

Answer: (D)


4. Restoration function is

(A) Medical rehabilitation

(B) Vocational Rehabilitation

(C) Social rehabilitation

(D) Psychological rehabilitation

Answer: (A)


5. Sex ratio is defined as

(A) Number of males per 1000 females

(B) Number of females per 1000 males

(C) Number of females per 100 males

(D) Number of males per 100 females

Answer: (B)


6. Antiserum are prepared from

(A) Guinea pig

(B) Rabbit

(C) Rat

(D) Horse

Answer: (D)


7. Incidence in exposed is = 10, Incidence in non-exposed is = 5. Relative risk is

(A) 50

(B) 0.5

(C) 5

(D) 2

Answer: (D)


8. Epidemiological triad contains all except

(A) Agent

(B) Environment

(C) Host

(D) Man power

Answer: (D)


9. Sentinel Surveillance is done for identifying.

(A) Missed cases

(B) Subclinical cases

(C) Index cases

(D) Prodromal infection cases

Answer: (A)www.netugc.com


10. Disease rate is

(A) Risk of susceptibility

(B) Usually expressed as percentage

(C) Time period in calendar year

(D) Disease occurrence in a specified time period

Answer: (D)

11. Herd immunity is important in all except

(A) Polio

(B) Measles

(C) Tetanus

(D) Diphtheria

Answer: (C)


12. All prevents maternal fetal transmission of HIV except

(A) Lamuvidine

(B) Amantadine

(C) Zidovidine

(D) Zalicitabane

Answer: (B)


13. Which of the following is not a killed vaccine?



(C) Hepatitis B

(D) Rabies

Answer: (B)


14. A freshly prepared oral dehydration solution should not be used after

(A) 8 hours

(B) 12 hours

(C) 24 hours

(D) 36 hours

Answer: (C)


15. Milk transmits all except

(A) Endemic typhus

(B) Q fever

(C) Typhoid fever

(D) Brucellosis

Answer: (A)


16. In India “Rabies free’ zone is

(A) Goa

(B) Sikkim

(C) Lakshadweep

(D) Nagaland

Answer: (C)


17. Which is most dangerous for transmitting plague?

(A) Blocked flea

(B) Partial block flea

(C) Unblocked flea

(D) Dead flea

Answer: (A)


18. “Strawberry tongue” followed by “raspberry tongue” is characteristic of

(A) Mumps

(B) Measles

(C) Chickenpox

(D) Scarlet fever

Answer: (D)


19. The last case of smallpox is reported in the world

(A) 1977

(B) 1978

(C) 1879

(D) 1982

Answer: (B)


20. Which of the following statements is true about a ‘confounding factor’?

(A) It is associated with both exposure and disease.

(B) It is distributed equally in both study and control groups.

(C) It is not a risk factor for the disease.

(D) It is present only in the control group and not study group.

Answer: (A)

21. Which of the following is the most powerful disinfectants?

(A) Phenol

(B) Lysol

(C) Dettol

(D) Potassium permanganate

Answer: (B)


22. Quarantine is

(A) Infected period

(B) Generation time

(C) Shortest incubation period

(D) Longest incubation period

Answer: (D)


23. Sensitivity is the ability of a test to correctly identify all

(A) True negatives

(B) True positives

(C) False negatives

(D) False positives

Answer: (B)


24. Carrier state is seen in all except?

(A) Diphtheria

(B) Measles

(C) Typhoid

(D) Polio

Answer: (B)


25. Rabies does not occur with bite of

(A) Dog

(B) Mouse

(C) Horse

(D) Cat

Answer: (B)


26. Polio is due to

(A) Virus

(B) Bacteria

(C) Protozoa

(D) Fungus

Answer: (A)


27. Minimum gap that should be allowed in between two administered live vaccines

(A) 2 weeks

(B) 4 weeks

(C) 2 months

(D) 4 months

Answer: (B)


28. Medical method of abortion in India is recommended in a facility with provision for safe abortion services and blood transfusion up t:

(A) 6 weeks of Amenorrhoea

(B) 7 weeks of Amenorrhoea

(C) 8 weeks of Amenorrhoea

(D) 12 weeks of Amenorrhoea

Answer: (B)


29. Gadchiroli model is approved as the bases for provision of

(A) Home based care for diarrhoea

(B) Home based safe delivery

(C) Health education of mothers

(D) Home based neonatal care

Answer: (D)


30. The most important essential fatty acid is

(A) Linoleic acid

(B) Linolenic acid

(C) Arachidonic acid

(D) Oleic acid

Answer: (A)


31. ICMR’s recommendation of 1.0 gm protein / kg. body weight assumes a Net Protein Utilization (NPU) of

(A) 60

(B) 65

(C) 100

(D) 50

Answer: (B)


32. The overall rate of turnover of proteins in adult man is equivalent to replacement betweenwww.netugc.com

(A) 1-2% of body protein each day

(B) 2-3% of body protein each day

(C) 3-4% of body protein each day

(D) 5% of body protein each day

Answer: (A)


33. To promote institutional deliveries RCH II program envisages operationalization for 24 hrs. by 2010 of which one of the following:

(A) All PHCs and CHCs

(B) 50% PHCs and all CHCs

(C) 50% PHCs and 50% CHCs

(D) All PHCs and 50% CHCs

Answer: (B)


34. Which one of the following statements in not true about child- woman ratio?

(A) It is the number of children 0-5 yrs. per 1000 women of child bearing age.

(B) It is derived from census data.

(C) It is used where birth registration statistics do not exist or are in adequate.

(D) It is the number of children 0-4 yrs. per 1000 women of child bearing age

Answer: (D)


35. Small for Date Babies weight less than

(A) 10th percentile for gestational age

(B) 20th percentile for gestational age

(C) 30th percentile for gestational age

(D) 25th percentile for gestational age

Answer: (A)


36. As compared to routine case control studies nested case control study avoids problems in study design related to:

(A) Temporal association

(B) Confounding bias

(C) Need for long follow up

(D) Randomization

Answer: (A)


37. The colour of the container for disposal of human anatomical wastes according to biomedical waste management recommendation is

(A) Red

(B) Black

(C) Yellow

(D) Green

Answer: (C)


38. First case of an epidemic is referred as

(A) Index case

(B) Primary case

(C) Suspicious case

(D) Prime case

Answer: (B)


39. Disease imported to a country not otherwise present

(A) Exotic

(B) Enzootic

(C) Epizootic

(D) Eudemic

Answer: (A)


40. Type of the biological transmission malarial parasite is:

(A) Cyclodevelopmental

(B) Developmental

(C) Propagative

(D) Cyclopropagative

Answer: (D)


41. Pneumoconiosis is causes by dust within the size range of

(A) 0.1 to 0.5 microns

(B) 0.1 to 1 micron

(C) 0.5 to 0.8 microns

(D) 0.5 to 3 microns

Answer: (D)


42. BCG vaccine is kept in refrigeration in

(A) Chilled Tray

(B) Freezer

(C) Tray below the freezer

(D) Shelves in the door

Answer: (B)


43. Inhalation of cotton fibre dust over long periods of time causes

(A) Bagassosis

(B) Byssinosis

(C) Farmer’s lung

(D) Anthracosis

Answer: (B)


44. Chadler’s index is used for measuring worm load of

(A) Ancylostomaduodenale

(B) Ascarislumbricoides

(C) Strongyloides

(D) Trichuristrichura

Answer: (A)


45. Which of the following diseases has not been eradicated?

(A) Smallpox

(B) Guinea worm

(C) Polio

(D) Yaws

Answer: (C)


46. Population count is taken on

(A) 1st January

(B) 1st March

(C) 1st July

(D) 1st August

Answer: (C)


47. Crude Birth Rate denominator is

(A) Total no. of live births in that year

(B) 1000 live births

(C) Total no. of births

(D) Mid-year population

Answer: (D)


48. WHO South-East Region covers all except

(A) Indonesia

(B) Myanmar

(C) Thailand

(D) Afghanistan

Answer: (D)


49. The test to detect contamination of mustard oil with Argemone oil is

(A) Nitric Acid test

(B) Sulphuric Acid test

(C) Chromic Acid test

(D) Hydrochloric Acid test

Answer: (A)


50. Pulses are deficient in

(A) Methionine

(B) Lysine

(C) Leucine

(D) Tryptophan

Answer: (A)


51. The value of residual chlorine should be

(A) 0.1 mg/litre

(B) 0.01 mg/litre

(C) 0.5 mg/litre

(D) 1.0 mg/litre

Answer: (C)


52. Water fluoride is removed by

(A) Boiling

(B) Nalgonda Technique

(C) Patna Technique

(D) Filtration

Answer: (B)


53. The size of sand in Rapid sand Filter is

(A) 0.62 – 2.0 mm

(B) 2.5 – 3.0 mm

(C) 0.4 – 0.7 mm

(D) 0.5 – 0.8 mm

Answer: (C)


54. ‘Nuisance mosquito’ refers to

(A) Anopheles

(B) Culex

(C) Aedes

(D) Mansonia

Answer: (B)


55. DDT acts by

(A) Contact poison

(B) Repellent

(C) Stomach poison

(D) Respiratory poison

Answer: (A)


56. ‘Ergonomics’ is

(A) Human engineering

(B) Genetic manipulation

(C) Occupational alteration

(D) Social engineering

Answer: (C)


57. The national cancer Registry program of the ICMR provides data on incidence of cancer in India from

(A) Six population based registries.

(B) Five population based registries.

(C) Seven population based registries.

(D) One population based registry.

Answer: (A)


58. The most sensitive index of recent transmission of malaria in a community is

(A) Spleen rate

(B) Infant parasite rate

(C) Annual Parasite incidences

(D) Slide positivity rate

Answer: (B)


59. Any loss or abnormality of psychological, physiological or anatomical structures or function is termed

(A) Impairment

(B) Disability

(C) Handicap

(D) Disease

Answer: (A)


60. Which of the following study designs can be used to calculate the incidence directly?

(A) Cross sectional

(B) Case control

(C) Retrospective

(D) Prospective

Answer: (D)


61. Which of the following is not true about Annual Infection Rate of tuberculosis?

(A) 1% increase in AIR is equivalent to 50 new cases of Sputum positive TB.

(B) It is one of the best indicator for evaluating tuberculosis and its trend.

(C) It expresses attacking force of tuberculosis in community.

(D) It is 2% in India.

Answer: (A)


62. The first evidence of infection in Hepatitis B is

(A) Anti HBs

(B) HBe Ag

(C) HBs Ag

(D) Anti HBc

Answer: (C)


63. Screening test is not useful when

(A) Condition support is an important health problem i.e. prevalence is high

(B) There is a test that can defect the disease prior to onset of signs and symptoms.

(C) Condition sought is not an important health problem i.e. prevalence is low.

(D) There is an effective treatment

Answer: (C)


64. Transovarian transmission occurs in

(A) Malaria

(B) Plague

(C) Filariasis

(D) Dengue feve

Answer: (D)


65. Standard deviation is a measure of

(A) Chance

(B) Deviation from mean valve

(C) Central tendency

(D) Deviation from median value

Answer: (B)


66. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates of two countries. This is done because of the difference in

(A) Cause of Death

(B) Age Distributions

(C) Socio Economic Conditions

(D) Health Service Differentials

Answer: (B)


67. Human Development index includes all except

(A) Adult Literacy Rate

(B) Infant Mortality Rate

(C) Life Expectancy at Birth

(D) Combined Gross Enrolment Ratio

Answer: (B)


68. First Referral Level in health system denotes.

(A) Primary health care

(B) Secondary health care

(C) Tertiary health care

(D) Super specialist health care

Answer: (B)


69. Identification of missed cases and supplementing the notified cases is done by

(A) Sentinel surveillance

(B) Screening

(C) Monitoring

(D) Epidemiological surveillance

Answer: (A)


70. All the following dimensions are rates except one. Mark the one which is not a rate.

(A) Crude Death Rate

(B) Proportional Mortality Rate

(C) Infant Mortality Rate

(D) Survival Rate

Answer: (B)


71. All are characteristics of common source single exposure epidemic curve except

(A) Curve rises and falls rapidly

(B) Clustering of cases in narrow interval

(C) Secondary waves

(D) Single peak

Answer: (C)


72. Case control study measures all except

(A) Odds Ratio

(B) Relative Risk

(C) Exposure Rate

(D) Incident Rates

Answer: (D)


73. Which is an antiseptic having sporocidal action?

(A) Cataclon

(B) Halogens

(C) Chlorohexidine

(D) 70% alcohol

Answer: (B)


74. The time between first possible point of diagnosis and the final critical diagnosis is called

(A) Screening time

(B) Generation time

(C) Lead time

(D) Serial interval

Answer: (C)


75. In a highly prevalent disease, if the cutoff point is lowered

(A) Sensitivity will increase

(B) Sensitivity will decrease

(C) Specificity will increase

(D) Specificity will decrease

Answer: (A)