2012 June UGC NET Solved Question Paper in Public Administration, Paper III

1. “Administration is the most obvious part of Government.” Who of the following made this statement?

(A) Kautilya

(B) Woodrow Wilson

(C) L.D. White

(D) Frank J. Goodnow

Answer: (B)

 

2. “The politics – administration dichotomy is a misleading distinction which has become a fetish, a stereotype in the minds of theorists and practitioners alike.” Who said this?

(A) Herbert Simon

(B) Paul H. Appleby

(C) Carl J. Friedrich

(D) Dwight Waldo

Answer: (C)

 

3. Which of the following is not the correct source of New Public Management?

(A) New Public Administration

(B) Public Choice Theory

(C) Managerialism

(D) Chicago School of Economics

Answer: (A)

 

4. Assertion (A): New Public Administration openly rejected the value neutrality.

Reason (R): Value neutrality in Public Administration is impossibility and the discipline should explicitly espouse the cause of the disadvantaged sections of the Society.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

 

5. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I                                                                                                               List-II

(Books)                                                                                                           (Authors)

(a) Administration: The Art and Science of Organisation and Management (i) Frank Marini

(b) Toward a New Public Administration: Minnow brook Perspective         (ii) Jan-Erick- Lane

(c) Making Democracy Work                                                                         (iii) Albert Lepawaski

(d) Public Administration and Public Management                                       (iv) Robert D. Putnam

Codes:

       (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(C) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(D) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Answer: (B)

 

6. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I                                       List-II

(Type of Organisation)            (Characteristics)

(a) Project Organisation          (i) Existence of horizontal and diagonal relationship

(b) Matrix Organisation          (ii) Facilitates co-operation team work and customer orientation

(c) Horizontal Organisation    (iii) Independent unit having link with a web of other units

(d) Network Organisation       (iv) Project organization plus a functional organisation

(v) Flexible to facilitate management change

Codes:

       (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(B) (i) (v) (ii) (iii)

(C) (v) (ii) (i) (iii)

(D) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)

Answer: (B)

 

7. Which of the following is the basis of influence in an informal organisation?

(A) Organisational position

(B) Person

(C) Authority

(D) Closeness with higher people

Answer: (B)

 

8. “Hierarchy is the linchpin that locks the form.” Who said it?

(A) Henry Fayol

(B) Urwick and Gullick

(C) Mooney and Reiley

(D) Earl Latham

Answer: (D)

 

9. Which one of the following is not a method of co-ordination?

(A) Planning

(B) Standardization of procedures

(C) Centralized house-keeping

(D) Inspection

Answer: (D)

 

10. “Bureaucracy is an organization that maximizes efficiency in administration or an institutional method of organized social conduct in the interest of administrative efficiency.” – Who has made this statement?

(A) Peter M. Blau

(B) Max Weber

(C) Thomson

(D) Alvin Gouldner

Answer: (A)

11. Which of the following are the characteristics of communication network, called grapevine in an organisation? Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(i) It is not controlled by management.

(ii) It is perceived by most employees as being more believable and reliable.

(iii) It is largely used to serve the organisational interest.

(iv) It is an important source of information.

Codes:

(A) (i) & (ii)

(B) (i), (ii) & (iii)

(C) (ii) & (iv)

(D) (i), (ii) & (iv)

Answer: (D)

 

12. The book ‘From Max Weber: Essays in Sociology’ was edited by –

(A) H.H. Hearth

(B) C.W. Mills

(C) Talcott Parsons and H.H. Hearth

(D) H.H. Hearth and C.W. Mills

Answer: (C)www.netugc.com

 

13. Which among the following are major functions of line agency?

(i) Making decisions

(ii) To ensure that Chief Executive is adequately informed

(iii) Maintaining production

(iv) Taking responsibility

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii)

(B) (i), (iii), (iv)

(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)

(D) (i), (ii), (iv)

Answer: (B)

 

14. According to Kautilya’s ‘Arthasastra’ a King should avoid –

(i) Lust

(ii) Greed

(iii) Confrontation

(iv) Vanity

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii)

(B) (ii), (iii)

(C) (i), (ii), (iv)

(D) (i), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (C)

 

15. “Charismatic authority can be routinized so that it continues to exist even after the departure of charismatic leader.” Who said it?

(A) Herbert Simon

(B) Chester Bernard

(C) Max Weber

(D) Peter Blau

Answer: (C)

 

16. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I                                       List-II

(Thinkers)                                (Ideas)

(a) Herbert Simon                   (i) Incrementalism

(b) Charles Lindbolm              (ii) Black Box Model

(c) David Easton                     (iii) Art of Judgement

(d) Geoffrey Vickers              (iv) Bounded Rationality

(v) Modified Rationalism

Codes:

       (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(B) (i) (iii) (v) (iv)

(C) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)

(D) (v) (ii) (i) (iii)

Answer: (A)

 

17. Who among the following has coined the term ‘Representative Bureaucracy’?

(A) Robert Merton

(B) Donald J. Kingsley

(C) F.M. Marx

(D) Herman Finer

Answer: (B)

 

18. Which one of the following is not M.P. Follett’s Criticism of Classical Theory?

(A) It treats organisation a closed system.

(B) It suffers from one-sidedness.

(C) It is mechanical in approach

(D) It ignores psychological aspects.

Answer: (A)

 

19. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I                                       List-II

(Concepts)                               (Thinkers)

(a) Linking Pin Model             (i) Rensis Likert

(b) Decision Tree                     (ii) Duncan

(c) Garbage Cane Model         (iii) Alderfer

(d) ERG Theory                      (iv) Cohen, March and Olson

Codes:

       (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Answer: (C)

 

20. Who called the Scientific Management as ‘Physiological Organisation Theory’?

(A) Robert Hoxic

(B) Oliver Sheldon

(C) Peter Drucker

(D) Simon and March

Answer: (D)

21. According to Elton Mayo, a worker’s performance is primarily related to

(A) The worker’s personality Variable

(B) Technological tools

(C) Interaction setting in an organization

(D) Socially acquired attitude of the worker in and outside of the factory.

Answer: (C)

 

22. Which of the following statements is/are linked to F.W. Taylor?

(i) Trade Unionism is unacceptable.

(ii) Scientific Management is mechanical.

(iii) Worker is a technical man.

(iv) Piece-rate wage plan is an unhealthy practice.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i)

(B) (ii)

(C) (i), (iii)

(D) (iii), (iv)

Answer: (C)

 

23. Assertion (A): Comparative Public Administration is productive and active in nature.

Reason (R): The idea of decline of Comparative Public Administration is premature, although Comparative Public Administration does not appear to have reached a critical point of development.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

 

24. According to Ferrel Heady, which of the following is not a feature of the administrative systems of the developing countries?

(A) Colonial legacy

(B) Lack of technical competence

(C) Formalism

(D) Operational autonomy

Answer: (D)

 

25. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of ‘Sala Model’?

(A) Institutional corruption

(B) Nepotism

(C) Formalism

(D) Actual behaviour is similar to formal expectations.

Answer: (D)

 

26. Which one is the last Independent Regulatory Commission in USA?

(A) Federal Communication Commission

(B) Civil Aeronautics Board

(C) US Maritime Commission

(D) Federal Power Commission

Answer: (B)

 

27. The Masterman Committee of Britain dealt with

(A) Political activities of civil servants

(B) Functioning of Whitley Council

(C) Re-organisation of administration

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

 

28. Which of the following countries has promulgated a new administrative regime in the form of the Enterprise Act, 2002?

(A) USA

(B) UK

(C) France

(D) India

Answer: (B)

 

29. Kofi Annan emphasized on some aspects of sustainable development in 2002 Earth Summit acronymed as WEHAB. This acronym includes – (Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(i) Water

(ii) Water and Sanitation

(iii) Energy

(iv) Employment

(v) Health

(vi) Housing

(vii) Agriculture

(viii) Biodiversity and Ecosystem Management

(ix) Biotechnology

(x) Agro-industry

Codes:

(A) (i), (iii), (v), (x) and (viii)

(B) (i), (iv), (vi), (vii) and (ix)

(C) (i), (ii), (v), (x) and (ix)

(D) (ii), (iii), (v), (vii) and (viii)

Answer: (D)

 

30. The phenomenon of development administration in India, traced to the inception of the Community Development in October 1952, was started on the recommendations of

(A) Krishnamachari Committee

(B) Project Appraisal Committee

(C) Administrative Reforms Commission

(D) Mahalanobis Model

Answer: (A)

 

31. Decision making process under Development Administration is supposed to be –

(i) Flexible

(ii) Centralized

(iii) Innovative

(iv) Rigid

Select the correct code:

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii)

(B) (i), (iii)

(C) (ii), (iii)

(D) (ii), (iv)

Answer: (B)

 

32. The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) has prioritized the most significant area under e-governance, which is

(A) Office Automation

(B) Service Delivery

(C) Development Needs

(D) Management Information System

Answer: (C)

 

33. Match List – I with List – II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I                                                                           List-II

(Traditional Administration)                                       (Features)

(a) Regulatory Administration                                    (i) Strict and authoritative climate of mistrust

(b) Orientated towards efficiency and economy        (ii) Routine operations

(c) Task orientation                                                     (iii) Concern for security and playing safe

(d) Sharp and elaborate hierarchical structure            (iv) Emphasis on individual performance

(v) Resistance to organization change

Codes:

       (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (v)

(B) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(C) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(D) (ii) (v) (iv) (iii)

Answer: (B)

 

34. The Cabinet is the integral core of the Council of Ministers and it is –

(i) An extra-constitutional body

(ii) An extra legal creation

(iii) Institutionalized by usage

(iv) Comprising most important ministers

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii)

(B) (i), (ii), (iii)

(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (D)

 

35. Which one of the following is the basis for Prime Minister’s Office?

(A) A Resolution of Cabinet

(B) Constitution of India

(C) An Act of Parliament

(D) Government of India Allocation of Business Rules, 1961.

Answer: (D)

 

36. Consider the following statements regarding the Cabinet Secretariat in India and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(i) It is a successor of the Secretariat of the Governor General’s Executive Council.

(ii) It performs co-ordinating role in the process of policy making at the highest level.

(iii) The office of the Cabinet Secretariat came into existence in 1947.

(iv) The First ARC had recommended that the Cabinet Secretary should ordinarily have tenure of three years.

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii)

(B) (i), (ii), (iv)

(C) (i), (iii), (iv)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (A)

 

37. While assisting the Minister in formulation of policies, the Secretariat performs which of the following functions?

(i) Making and modifying policies from time to time.

(ii) Drafting bills, rules and regulations.

(iii) Coordinating and interpreting policies.

(iv) To direct the States Government

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii)

(B) (i), (iii)

(C) (i), (ii), (iii)

(D) (i), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (C)

 

38. The Second Administrative Reforms Commission has identified strengths and weaknesses in the existing structure of Government of India in a report. Identify a weakness cited in the report.

(A) Stability

(B) Commitment to Constitution

(C) Proliferation of Ministries / Department

(D) Proliferation of Administrative Agencies

Answer: (C)

 

39. Which one of the following is not created by an Act of Parliament?www.netugc.com

(A) National Commission for Backward Classes

(B) University Grants Commission

(C) Atomic Energy Commission

(D) Railway Board

Answer: (A)

 

40. Which of the following is not the recommendation of Hota Committee pertaining to the issue of disciplinary procedure for Government Servants in India?

(A) Union Public Service Commission need not be consulted in case of a civil servant facing charges of corrupt practice.

(B) Article 311 of the Constitution may be deleted.

(C) Where minor disciplinary proceedings are sufficient to meet the end of justice, and then major penalty proceedings should not be initiated.

(D) An inquiry officer should be relieved from his normal duties.

Answer: (B)

 

41. The members of the Union Public Service Commission can be removed on the ground of misbehaviour by

(A) Impeachment by Parliament

(B) The President after an inquiry and verdict of the Supreme Court.

(C) The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission.

(D) By the President on the recommendation of the Cabinet.

Answer: (B)

 

42. Who was of the view that Indian Civil Service was the “steel frame” on which the whole structure of Government and Administration in India rest?

(A) Winston Churchill

(B) Godwin Austin

(C) David Lloyd George

(D) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: (C)

 

43. Which one of the following is not correct about the ‘Civil Service Day’ in India?

(A) It is celebrated on 21st April

(B) Prime Minister hands over ‘Prime Minister Excellence Award in Public Administration’ to the civil servants on this day.

(C) India has started celebrating this day since 2006.

(D) Prime Minister’s Office makes arrangements to organise this event every year.

Answer: (D)

 

44. The National Training Policy in India

(i) Intends to cultivate democratic values

(ii) Stipulates greater emphasis on the training of higher and supervisory level officials.

(iii) Strives to bring responsiveness to the expectation of citizens

(iv) Earmarks two percent of total salary budget for training which is to be solely used for this purpose

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii)

(B) (i), (iii)

(C) (ii), (iii)

(D) (i), (iv)

Answer: (B)

 

45. The training for IAS is conducted in four stages. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of training stages?

(A) Foundational, Professional, Field and Institutional

(B) Foundational, Institutional, Field and Professional

(C) Foundational, Field, Professional and Institutional

(D) Institutional, Foundational, Field and Professional

Answer: (A)

 

46. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I                                                   List-II

(Kind of Budget)                                (Basic Orientation of Budget)

(a) Line Item Budget                          (i) Control

(b) Performance Budget                     (ii) Decision Making

(c) Planning Programme Budget         (iii) Management

(d) Zero-based Budget                       (iv) Planning

Codes:

       (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(D) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

Answer: (B)

 

47. Consider the statements regarding Department related Standing Committees in India and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(i) The maximum number of members in these committees is 31.

(ii) The committees consider the demands for Grants, Annual Reports of Ministries / Departments.

(iii) The reports of these Committees are treated as ‘considered advice’.

(iv) The Committees also suggest the Cut Motion.

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii)

(B) (i), (ii), (iv)

(C) (ii), (iii), (iv)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (A)

 

48. When was the All India Services Act passed by the Parliament of India?

(A) 1950

(B) 1951

(C) 1960

(D) 1961

Answer: (B)

 

49. The charged expenditure in the Budget is characterized as

(i) Charged on the Consolidated Fund of India

(ii) Not discussed in the Parliament

(iii) non-votable by the Parliament

(iv) Salary and allowances of Comptroller and Auditor General of India is an example of charged expenditure.

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii)

(B) (i), (ii), (iv)

(C) (i), (iii), (iv)

(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (C)

 

50. Assertion (A): The National Development Council (NDC) is not a product of the Planning Commission’s recommendations.

Reason (R): The National Development Council reviews the working of the National Plans and also considers questions of social and economic policy.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (D)

 

51. Primarily, a researcher should possess which of the following qualities?

(A) Scientific Attitude

(B) Scientific Thinking

(C) Scientific Behaviour

(D) Scientific Feelings

Answer: (A)

 

52. ‘Interview is a process of social interaction.’ Who said it?

(A) P.V. Young

(B) M.N. Basu

(C) Goode and Hatt

(D) V.M. Palmer

Answer: (C)

 

53. Select the correct research design indicated by the following characteristics:

(i) Describes the accurate features of a phenomenon.

(ii) Intends to find out the incidence of relationships between certain variables.

(iii) Makes certain specific predictions.

(A) Exploratory Research Design

(B) Descriptive Research Design

(C) Diagnostic Research Design

(D) Informal Experimental Design

Answer: (B)

 

54. According to Dale, a qualitative approach is not necessary in which of the following situations?

(A) When it is possible to study statistically representative samples of beneficiaries.

(B) When changes are the result of complex process.

(C) For the purpose of analyzing relevance due to the value of judgements involved.

(D) When studying the organizational issues pertaining to policy implementation

Answer: (A)

 

55. Probability and Non-probability sampling techniques are used to draw a sample of the population under study. Which include?

(i) Systematic random sampling

(ii) Stratified random sampling

(iii) Cluster sampling

(iv) Purposive sampling

(v) Quota sampling

Select the correct group of probability sampling techniques by using codes given below:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(D) (i), (ii) and (v)

Answer: (B)

 

56. ‘District Administration’ means

(i) Collector’s Office

(ii) Conglomeration of all the district level administrative departments

(iii) A territory marked off for special administrative purpose

(iv) The total management of public affairs within the territorial unit.

Choose the answer from the codes given below:

(A) (i), (ii)

(B) (i), (ii), (iv)

(C) (ii), (iii)

(D) (ii), (iv)

Answer: (D)

 

57. Which report of Second Administrative Reforms Commission is related to local governance?

(A) 5th

(B) 6th

(C) 7th

(D) 8th

Answer: (B)

 

58. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides for the District Planning Committee?

(A) Article 242 ZD

(B) Article 243 ZA

(C) Article 243 ZD

(D) Article 244 ZA

Answer: (C)

 

59. What was one of the most significant recommendations of L.M. Shinghvi Committee on the Panchayati Raj Institutions?

(A) Involvement of political parties in elections.

(B) Non-involvement of political parties in elections.

(C) Right to Recall

(D) Fixed term for PRIs.

Answer: (B)

 

60. What is the title of the United Nations Habitat 2006 Report?

(A) Urban Governance

(B) Urban Development

(C) Urban Millennium

(D) Urban Habitat

Answer: (C)

 

61. The Urban Poverty Alleviation Programmes have been clearly classified into some categories by which of the following in India?

(A) Planning Commission

(B) National Development Council

(C) Ministry of Urban Development and Poverty Alleviation

(D) National Commission on Urbanization

Answer: (B)

 

62. Assertion (A): Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) is a ten years programme beginning from 2005-06

Reason (R): JNNURM’s main components are urban infrastructure, urban governance and basic services for the urban poor.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (C)

 

63. Assertion (A): Social Welfare Administration generates awareness about the challenges of a society in transition where negative use of technologies and practices are impacting on the well- being of women and children.

Reason (R): Social Welfare Administration is the summation of social welfare institutions, policies and programmes.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

 

64. The most acceptable explanation of Social Justice is

(A) Economic development

(B) Social development

(C) Uplift of specific sections

(D) Uplift of all the sections of society

Answer: (D)

 

65. Central Social Welfare Board at present is functioning under the administrative control of –

(A) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

(B) Ministry of Human Resource Development

(C) Ministry of Women and Child Development

(D) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Answer: (C)

 

66. Assertion (A): Bio-ethics and Social Justice are interrelated.

Reason (R): Affordable access to health care especially for low income households and families refers to bio-ethics.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

 

67. ‘Association of Voluntary Agencies for Rural Development’ (AVARD) was established in the year:

(A) 1952

(B) 1958

(C) 1962

(D) 1968

Answer: (B)

 

68. Which of the following is not the policy implementation model as suggested by R. Elmore?

(A) Systems Management

(B) Conflict and Bargaining

(C) Organizational Development

(D) Policy Action Model

Answer: (D)

 

69. According to Poister, which of the following is the basis of Policy Evaluation?

(i) Effectiveness

(ii) Adequacy

(iii) Appropriateness

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii)

(B) (i), (ii)

(C) (i), (iii)

(D) (ii), (iii)

Answer: (A)

 

70. Which of the following is not the approach to policy evaluation?

(A) Evaluability Assessment

(B) Effectiveness Evaluation

(C) Evaluation Synthesis Approach

(D) Experimental method

Answer: (D)

 

71. Which of the following States does not have Panchayati Raj Institutions?www.netugc.com

(A) Assam

(B) Arunachal Pradesh

(C) Tripura

(D) Nagaland

Answer: (D)

 

72. In which Article of the Constitution of India, the provision of ‘workers’ participation in management of undertakings is given?

(A) Article 42

(B) Article 42 A

(C) Article 43

(D) Article 43 A

Answer: (D)

 

73. Which among the following companies was not a ‘Maharatna’ company as on March, 2012?

(A) Coal India Limited

(B) Indian Oil Corporation Limited

(C) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited

(D) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited

Answer: (C)

 

74. When did the Government of India first time accord ‘Maharatna Status’ to the Public Sector Undertakings?

(A) 1997

(B) 2001

(C) 2004

(D) 2009

Answer: (D)

 

75. Removal of poverty was stated as the dominant objective in which of the following Five Year Plan in India?

(A) Third Five Year Plan

(B) Fourth Five Year Plan

(C) Fifth Five Year Plan

(D) Sixth Five Year Plan

Answer: (C)

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