2013 June UGC NET Solved Question Paper in Labour Welfare, Paper III

1. The process of comparing actual performance with standards and taking necessary corrective action is called

(A) Controlling

(B) Communicating

(C) Co-operating

(D) Co-ordinating

Answer: (A)

 

2. An aggregate of several related action plans that have been designed to accomplish a mission within a specified time period is known as

(A) Project

(B) Policy

(C) Process

(D) Programme

Answer: (D)

 

3. Principle of direct contact, reciprocal relationships and principle of continuity as principles of coordination are advanced by

(A) Luther Gullick

(B) Henry Fayol

(C) Mary Parker Follette

(D) Havold Koontz

Answer: (C)

 

4. Which one of the following is not a function of the Personnel Department?

(A) Employment Activities

(B) Manpower Adjustment

(C) Grievance Handling

(D) Quality Management

Answer: (D)

 

5. Which one of the following is not time based incentive plan?

(A) Halsey Plan

(B) Merrick Plan

(C) Rowan Plan

(D) Emerson Plan

Answer: (B)

 

6. The concept of “End spurt” is associated with which of the following?

(A) Job satisfaction

(B) Morale

(C) Monotony

(D) Fatigue

Answer: (C)

 

7. Which of the following is not a part of the Scheme of Workers’ Participation in Management in India?

(A) Shop Level Councils

(B) Joint Level Councils

(C) Unit Level Councils

(D) Industrial Level Councils

Answer: (D)

 

8. Who has described initiation and implementation as the two stages of organizational innovation?

(A) John Child

(B) Zaltman et. al

(C) Manzet. al

(D) N.R. Anderson

Answer: (B)

 

9. Which of the following cannot be said to be a trade union in true sense?

(A) Craft Union

(B) Industrial Union

(C) Company Union

(D) Federation

Answer: (C)

 

10. The name of which of the following legislations has been recently changed?

(A) Workmens’ Compensation Act

(B) Employees’ State Insurance Act

(C) Maternity Benefit Act

(D) Payment of Gratuity Act

Answer: (A)

11. Which of the following organizations coordinates and controls the working of voluntary welfare agencies in India?

(A) ESI Corporation

(B) EPF Organisation

(C) Central Social Welfare Board

(D) Chief Labour Commissioner (Central)

Answer: (C)

 

12. What is the name of the experiment which marked the beginning of Labour Welfare?

(A) Hawthorne Experiment

(B) New Lamark Experiment

(C) Philadelphia Experiment

(D) Mule Spinning Department Experiment

Answer: (B)

 

13. In which of the following we notice under-employment in a large measure?

(A) Coal Industry

(B) Textile Industry

(C) Banking

(D) Agriculture

Answer: (D)

 

14. Which of the following components is not true as a part of unemployment definition?

(A) Physically fit to work

(B) Mentally fit to work

(C) Ability to discharge the work most efficiently

(D) But, unable to find work

Answer: (C)

 

15. The special provisions relating to Lay-off, retrenchment and closure as given under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 apply to those establishments where at least

(A) 100 workers are employed.

(B) 50 workers are employed.

(C) 200 workers are employed.

(D) 500 workers are employed.

Answer: (A)

 

16. Which of the following is not an industrial action in India?

(A) Strike

(B) Lockout

(C) Picketing

(D) Mass casual leave

Answer: (D)

 

17. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 requires advance notice to be given for going on strike and lockout in public utility services only. Which of the following specifies serving of notices for strike and lockout in nonpublic utility services also?

(A) Inter-Union Code of Conduct

(B) Code of Discipline in Industry

(C) Code of Efficiency and Welfare

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

 

18. Which of the following bargaining is based on workers’ contribution to productivity?www.netugc.com

(A) Coalition Bargaining

(B) Concession Bargaining

(C) Productivity Bargaining

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

 

19. Which of the following labour legislations in USA made unions more powerful than management?

(A) Wagner Act

(B) Taft-Hartley Act

(C) Narris-Le Guaradia Act

(D) Landrum-Griffin Act

Answer: (A)

 

20. Which of the following practices lead to democracy in trade unions?

(A) Regular meeting

(B) Fair and timely elections

(C) Audit of accounts of union

(D) All the above

Answer: (D)

21. Which of the following is not a mode of Workers’ Participation in Management?

(A) Works Committee

(B) Employee Stock Option Plan

(C) Joint Management Council

(D) Joint Committee for Policy Formulation

Answer: (B)

 

22. Which of the following is not a bipartite body?

(A) Works Committee

(B) Canteen Committee

(C) Safety Committee

(D) Standing Labour Committee

Answer: (D)

 

23. Which one of the following is not a tripartite body?

(A) Indian Labour Conference

(B) Standing Labour Committee

(C) Joint Management Council

(D) Minimum Wages Advisory Board

Answer: (C)

 

24. Under whose regime as Union Labour Minister, majority of codes were evolved by the Central Government?

(A) V.V. Giri

(B) Guljarilal Nanda

(C) Khandubhai Desai

(D) Bindheswari Dubey

Answer: (B)

 

25. Which of the following statements about Joint Management Councils is wrong?

(A) The scheme of Joint Management Councils (JMCs) was formulated by the CentralGovernment.

(B) It was implemented in all industrial establishments in the country.

(C) It was not implemented through any statute.

(D) It consisted of representatives of labour and management.

Answer: (B)

 

26. Which of the following can be said to be an Industrial Relations body/ machinery in USA?

(A) Ministry of Labour

(B) National Labour Relations Board (NLRB)

(C) National Productivity Council

(D) AF of L & CIO.

Answer: (B)

 

27. The Advisory Conciliation and Arbitration Services (ACAS) which was provided under the Industrial Relations Act of 1975 of Great Britain provides for

(A) Conciliation and Arbitration of disputes

(B) Disposal of dispute by collective bargaining

(C) Matter to be taken to adjudication

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

 

28. ‘Closed shop’ means which of the following?

(A) Joining union first and then employment.

(B) Employment first and joining union later.

(C) Not joining any union after employment.

(D) A shop which is closed.

Answer: (A)

 

29. Under which labour legislation in India the provision of check-off has been accepted?

(A) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

(B) Trade Unions Act, 1926

(C) Payment of Wages Act, 1936

(D) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act

Answer: (C)

 

30. Match the following:

List – I                                                            List – II

a. Royal Commission on Labour                     i. P.B. Gajendra Gadkar

b. Labour Investigation Committee                ii. Rege

c. First National Labour Commission             iii. Ravindra Verma

d. Second National Labour Commission        iv. J.H. Whitley

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) iv iii ii i

(B) iv ii i iii

(C) iv iii i ii

(D) ii iv iii i

Answer: (B)

 

31. Which of the following is an outcome of collective bargaining?

(A) Award of Labour Court

(B) Award of Tribunal

(C) Arbitration Award

(D) Consent Award

Answer: (D)

 

32. Assertion (A): The policy of tripartitism on which the Indian Industrial Relations System rested, has failed to yield the desired results.

Reason (R): The parties to the tripartite bodies have resorted to conflict measures and adjudication.

Codes:

(A) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.

(B) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.

(C) (A) is right and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Answer: (C)

 

33. Majority of industrial disputes are settled by which of the following machinery in India?

(A) Conciliation Machinery

(B) Arbitration Machinery

(C) Adjudication Machinery

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

 

34. Which of the following is the meaning of ‘Cooling off’ period in industrial relations?

(A) Workers to have bath after long hours of work with cold water.

(B) Not to be annoyed at the place of work.

(C) To have a proper spirit of implementing agreements.

(D) The period from serving the notice of strike and the date of resorting to a strike in order to think coolly whether the workers should go on a strike or not.

Answer: (D)

 

35. Which one of the following is not a subject matter of industrial relations?

(A) Trade Union and Collective Bargaining

(B) Strikes and Lockouts

(C) Unfair Labour Practices

(D) Employee Compensation and Welfare

Answer: (D)

 

36. Safety net provision is a part of which of the following?

(A) Accidents prevention andsafety policy

(B) New economic policy

(C) Corporate social responsibility policy

(D) Employee adjustment policy

Answer: (B)

 

37. Assertion (A): In the post economic reforms era Indian business houses initially had to take strong decisions in terms of cost cutting measures and human resource rationalization.

Reason (R): Economic reforms opened up markets and allowed foreign direct investment causing the domestic industry to compete on uneven level playing ground.

Codes:

(A) (A) is right, but (R) attributed is wrong.

(B) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(D) (A) is right and (R) is attributed is logical.

Answer: (D)

 

38. During whose tenure as Prime Minister, the Economic Reforms in India were initiated?

(A) Smt. Indira Gandhi

(B) Rajiv Gandhi

(C) Dr. Manmohan Singh

(D) Dr. P.V. Narasimha Rao

Answer: (D)

 

39. Which of the following is not a contributory factor for HR outsourcing?

(A) Strategic Reasons

(B) Financial Reasons

(C) Trade Union Hassels

(D) Competitive Factor

Answer: (C)

 

40. Which of the following statements about downsizing is not correct?

(A) Mergers and Acquisitions are responsible for downsizing.

(B) Technical up gradation cannot be attributed as a reason for downsizing.

(C) Downsizing helps in getting rid of deadwood.

(D) Cost-cutting measure is a reason for downsizing.

Answer: (B)

 

41. Match the following:

Management Strategies                       Propounders

a. ‘5’ forces analysis                            i. Robert S. Kaplan & David P. Norton

b. Business Process Engineering         ii. C.K. Prahlad & Gary Hamel

c. Balanced Scorecard                        iii. Michael Porter

d. Core Competency Model               iv. Michael Hammer and James Champy

Codes:

      a b c d

(A) ii iv iii i

(B) iii ii i iv

(C) iv ii iii i

(D) iii iv i ii

Answer: (D)

 

42. Which of the following is a force that acts as stimulant for organizational change?www.netugc.com

(A) Nature of the workforce

(B) Technology

(C) Economic Shock

(D) All the above

Answer: (D)

 

43. The Japanese 5 ‘S’ model deals with

(A) Housekeeping

(B) Assembly line production

(C) Quality assurance

(D) Cost effective measures

Answer: (A)

 

44. Match the following:

List – I                                                            List – II

a. POSDCORB                                               i. Mary Parker Follette

b. 14 Principles of Management                     ii. Luther Gullick

c. Integration Theory of Management            iii. Peter F. Drucker

d. Management by Objectives                        iv. Henry Fayol

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) ii iii iv i

(B) ii i iv iii

(C) ii iv i iii

(D) iii i iv iii

Answer: (C)

 

45. Which of the following training programmes is meant for a new employee?

(A) Sensitivity training

(B) Apprenticeship training

(C) Induction training

(D) In-basket exercise

Answer: (C)

 

46. Which of the following statements is not true about benchmarking strategy of TQM?

(A) It is related to the efforts of Kaizen.

(B) It is related to the raising of criteria for selection.

(C) It is raising the performance standards of the organization.

(D) It is a people driven activity.

Answer: (B)

 

47. Which of the following is not a type of HRM strategy?

(A) Task focused strategy

(B) Development oriented strategy

(C) Turnaround HRM strategy

(D) Placating HRM strategy

Answer: (D)

 

48. Which of the following is not a ‘lab’ in the sensitivity training, also known as Laboratory training?

(A) Stranger lab

(B) Cousin lab

(C) Organizational lab

(D) Family lab

Answer: (C)

 

49. Which of the following statements about the recent trends in HRM is not correct?

(A) Employer branding is attempted to be achieved through HRM practices.

(B) Competency mapping is a recent trend in HRM.

(C) Measurement of HR through balanced scorecard has taken shape.

(D) Performance and Knowledge Management are not related to strategic HRM.

Answer: (D)

 

50. Which of the following is not a method of dealing with resistance to change?

(A) Education and Communication

(B) Participation

(C) Facilitation and Support

(D) Coercion and Punishment

Answer: (D)

 

51. Which one of the following statements is wrong about OD?

(A) It is a diagnostic process.

(B) It is an intervention mechanism.

(C) It is a punitive mechanism.

(D) It is a value driven mechanism.

Answer: (C)

 

52. The ‘Managerial Grid’ model was developed by

(A) Robert Blake and Jane S. Mouton

(B) Lawler and Porter

(C) Fiedler and Garcia

(D) Hersey and Blanchard

Answer: (A)

 

53. Assertion (A): Structural inertia is an organizational resistance process to change because organizationshave built in mechanism toproduce stability.

Reason (R): People with a high need for security are likely to resist change because it threatens their feeling of safety.

Codes:

(A) (A) is right and (R) is a correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are right, but the (R) does not explain the (A).

(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(D) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.

Answer: (B)

 

54. Match the following:

List – I                        List – II

a. Ethnocentric            i. These organizations adopt synergistic strategies to function across geographies.

b. Polycentric              ii. These organizations create an integrated system with a worldwide approach.

c. Regiocentric            iii. These are home country oriented organizations.

d. Geocentric              iv. Outward oriented culture where individuals follow the saying that “When in Rome, do as Romans”.

Codes:

      a b c d

(A) ii iv i iii

(B) iv i iii ii

(C) iii iv i ii

(D) i iii iv ii

Answer: (C)

 

55. The case study method of OD was developed by

(A) Christopher C. Longdell

(B) Eric Berne

(C) Udai Pareek

(D) S.R. Udpa

Answer: (A)

 

56. Which one of the following is not a principle of labour legislation?

(A) Principle of Protection

(B) Principle of Social Justice

(C) Principle of Social Security and Welfare

(D) Principle of Reasonable Standard of Living

Answer: (D)

 

57. Which one of the following is not based on the principle of welfare?

(A) Mica Mines Labour Welfare Funds Act

(B) Iron Ore Mines Labour Welfare Funds Act

(C) Minimum Wages Act

(D) Dock Workers (Safety, Health, Welfare) Act

Answer: (C)

 

58. Which part of the Indian Constitution divides jurisdiction for enactment of Labour Legislations?

(A) Distribution of Legislative Power

(B) Directive Principles of State Policy

(C) Fundamental Rights

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

 

59. Which Labour Legislation has been enacted on the basis of Right to Association as given under the Fundamental Rights of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Minimum Wages Act

(B) Payment of Wages Act

(C) Trade Unions Act

(D) Industrial Disputes Act

Answer: (C)

 

60. Which of the following cannot be said to be a factor influencing the growth of Labour Legislations in India?

(A) Rise of Trade Unions

(B) International Labour Organization

(C) Growth of Humanitarianism

(D) Caste System in India

Answer: (D)

 

61. Which one of the following recommended enactment of a wagelegislation in India in order to rectify the problems relating to payment of wages of industrial workers?

(A) National Commission on Labour

(B) Royal Commission on Labour

(C) Labour Investigation Committee

(D) Adarkar Committee

Answer: (B)

 

62. Which one of the following is not a type of labour administration machinery in India?

(A) Central Implementation Machinery

(B) Industrial Implementation Machinery

(C) State Implementation Machinery

(D) Regional Implementation Machinery

Answer: (B)

 

63. Which one of the following Labour Legislations provides comprehensive benefits to industrial workers in India?

(A) Employee Provident Funds Act

(B) Employees’ Compensation Act

(C) Employees’ State Insurance Act

(D) Maternity Benefit Act

Answer: (C)

 

64. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) India has ratified more than eighty Conventions of I.L.O.

(B) Trade Unions Act of 1926 is based on I.L.O. Convention number 87 called Freedom of Association.

(C) I.L.O. is a tripartite body.

(D) Governing Body is an organ of I.L.O.

Answer: (A)

 

65. Under which of the following categories the Shops and Commercial Establishment Legislations can be included?

(A) Wage Legislations

(B) Social Security Legislations

(C) Working Conditions Legislations

(D) Welfare Legislations

Answer: (C)

 

66. Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act is the result of the ratification by India of which of the following Conventions of I.L.O?

(A) Unemployment Convention, 1919

(B) Forced Labour Convention, 1930

(C) Weekly Rest (Industry Convention) 1921

(D) Right of Association (Agriculture) Convention, 1921

Answer: (B)

 

67. The age of dependent for obtaining dependent’s benefit under the Employees State Insurance Act has now been enhanced from 18 years to

(A) 20 years

(B) 22 years

(C) 24 years

(D) 25 years

Answer: (D)

 

68. Which of the following has not been implemented through any legislation at the National level?

(A) Joint Management Council

(B) Workers’ Participation in Management

(C) Recognition of Trade Unions

(D) None of the above

Answer: (D)

 

69. The Bhopal Gas Tragedy led to an amendment under which of the following legislations?

(A) Factories Act

(B) Mines Act

(C) Plantation Labour Act

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A)

 

70. The provision relating to suspension has been made under which of the following legislations?

(A) Industrial Disputes Act

(B) Trade Union Act

(C) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

 

71. What is the wage limit to be eligible to be covered under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952?www.netugc.com

(A) Rs. 6,000

(B) Rs. 6,500

(C) Rs. 7,000

(D) Rs. 7,500

Answer: (B)

 

72. Which of the following statements is correct?

(A) There is a statutory provision for recognition of Trade Unions in India at the Central level.

(B) There is no statutory provision for recognition of Trade Unions in India at the Central level.

(C) Code of discipline provides both for Registration and Recognition.

(D) There is provision for recognition under the Inter-Union Code of Conduct.

Answer: (B)

 

73. Under which of the following legislations women avail maternity benefit upto six months?

(A) Maternity Benefit Act

(B) Employees’ State Insurance Act

(C) Both under (A) & (B)

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

 

74. Which of the following legislations apply to unorganized sector workers in India?

(A) Minimum Wages Act

(B) Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986

(C) Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

 

75. The Factories Act, 1948 requires the appointment of the ‘Safety Officer’ in factories employing at least

(A) 250 workers

(B) 500 workers

(C) 1000 workers

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

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