2012 December UGC NET Solved Question Paper in Labour Welfare, Paper II

1. Match the following:

Thinker                                    Management Principle

a. F.W. Taylor                         i. Authority and Responsibility

b. Henri Fayol                         ii. Hierarchy

c. Weber                                  iii. Separation of planning from doing

d. Elton Mayo                                     iv. Human Relations Approach

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) iii i iv ii

(B) iii iv i ii

(C) iii i ii iv

(D) iii ii i iv

Answer: (C)

 

2. Which of the following is the major element of planning process?

(A) Developing leadership abilities

(B) Selecting right people

(C) Perception of opportunities

(D) Motivating people

Answer: (C)

 

3. Which principle of management is violated by matrix organisation structure?

(A) Division of Labour

(B) Unity of Direction

(C) Unity of Command

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

 

4. Which of the following involves careful analysis of inputs and corrective actions before operation is completed?

(A) Feed forward control

(B) Concurrent control

(C) Feedback control

(D) All the above

Answer: (A)

 

5. Which of the following is not a semantic barrier of communication?

(A) Faulty translation

(B) Ambiguous words

(C) Specialist’s language

(D) Inattention

Answer: (D)

 

6. People should be regarded as assets rather than variable costs was emphasised in

(A) Personnel Management

(B) Human Resource Management

(C) Personnel Administration

(D) Public Administration

Answer: (B)

 

7. The classical theorists favoured organisation based on

(A) Civilian model

(B) Strategic model

(C) Military model

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

 

8. Job analysis includes:

(A) Job description and job enlargement

(B) Job enlargement and job enrichment

(C) Job description and job specification

(D) All of the above

Answer: (C)

 

9. A test which measure, what it is intended to measure is

(A) Reliable testwww.netugc.com

(B) Standardised test

(C) Objective test

(D) Valid test

Answer: (D)

 

10. An enquiry that is conducted afresh because of the objections raised by alleged employee is called

(A) Domestic enquiry

(B) De-novo enquiry

(C) Ex-parte enquiry

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

11. The concept of HRD scorecard was introduced in India by

(A) UdaiPareek

(B) Rao and Pareek

(C) T.V. Rao

(D) ArunHonappa

Answer: (C)

 

12. Performance appraisal by all the following parties is called 3600 performance appraisal:

(A) Supervisors and Peers

(B) Subordinates and Employees themselves

(C) Users of Service and Consultants

(D) All the above

Answer: (D)

 

13. The following is the right process of training:

(A) Instructional design, validation, need analysis, implementation and evaluation

(B) Need analysis, instructional design, validation, implementation and evaluation

(C) Need analysis, validation, instructional design, implementation and evaluation

(D) Instructional design, need analysis, implementation, validation and evaluation

Answer: (B)

 

14. Fish bone analysis as a tool of quality circle was advanced by

(A) Edward Deming

(B) Joseph Juran

(C) Kouru Ishi Kawa

(D) Phillip Crosby

Answer: (C)

 

15. Match the following:

Books and Concepts                            Authors

a. Games People Play                          i. Eric Bernie

b. I am OK you are OK                      ii. Kurt Lewin

c. Johari Window                                iii. Thomas A. Harris

d. Force Field Analysis                       iv. Joseph Lufth & Harry Inghams

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) ii i iv iii

(B) i iii iv ii

(C) iv ii iii i

(D) iii i ii iv

Answer: (B)

 

16. Which of the following decreases group cohesiveness?

(A) Agreement on group goals

(B) Frequency of interaction

(C) Large group size

(D) All the above

Answer: (C)

 

17. Managers subscribing to ______ assumptions attempt to structure, control and closely supervise their employees.

(A) Theory ‘X’

(B) Theory ‘Y’

(C) Both Theory ‘X’ and Theory ‘Y’

(D) Neither Theory ‘X’ nor Theory ‘Y’

Answer: (A)

 

18. According to Fiedler’s Contingency Model of Leadership, which one of the following is a situational variable?

(A) Leader – Member relationship

(B) Organisational System

(C) Degree of task structure

(D) Leader’s position power

Answer: (B)

 

19. The right sequence of steps in Kurt Lewin’s change procedure is

(A) Unfreezing – Moving – Freezing

(B) Moving – Unfreezing – Freezing

(C) Unfreezing – Freezing – Moving

(D) Freezing – Moving – Unfreezing

Answer: (A)

 

20. Which of the following is not a traditional method of organisational development?

(A) Survey feedback

(B) Sensitivity training

(C) Process consultation

(D) Managerial grid

Answer: (C)

21. Characteristics of Industrial Relations do not include:

(A) Industrial Relations are outcome of employment relationship in an industrial enterprise.

(B) Industrial Relations promote the skills and methods of adjustment and co-operation with each other.

(C) Industrial Relations create complex rules and regulations to maintain cordial relations.

(D) Industrial Relations system creates an environment of distrust and conflict.

Answer: (D)

 

22. Who are not the Actors of Industrial Relations?

(A) Workers and their organisations

(B) Employers and their organisations

(C) Community and cultural associations

(D) Government and the role of the State

Answer: (C)www.netugc.com

 

23. Which of the following is machinery for settlement of industrial disputes?

(A) Indian Labour Conference

(B) Joint Management Council

(C) Industrial Tribunal

(D) Standing Labour Committees

Answer: (C)

 

24. Match List – I with List – II:

List – I                                                                                                                        List – II

a. Joint Management Council consisting of representatives of workers and management was considered by the Indian Labour Conference (ILC) in its 15th Session in the year        i. 1958

b. Works Committees were set-up under the Industrial Disputes Act in the year     ii. 1947

c. ILO established in the year                                                                                     iii. 1919

d. First National Commission on Labour submitted its report in the year                  iv. 1969

Codes:

      a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) iv i iii ii

(C) iii i ii iv

(D) ii iv i ii

Answer: (A)

 

25. Which of the following trends in the employment relations in the new economic era is not correct?

(A) Declining stability and security

(B) Declining labour intensity

(C) No shift from contract of service to contract of service

(D) Declining mutual commitment

Answer: (C)

 

26. A Trade Union means “An association of workers in one or more professions carried on mainly for the purpose of protecting and advancing the members’ economic interest in connection with their daily work”.

Identify the author:

(A) Sidney and Beatrice Webb

(B) J. Cunnison

(C) G.D.H. Cole

(D) Clyde E. Dankert

Answer: (A)

 

27. A union may claim recognition for an industry in a local area, if it has membership of

(A) 10% of the workers in that industry.

(B) 15% of the workers in that area.

(C) 25% of the workers of that industry in that area.

(D) 30% of the workers in similar industry.

Answer: (C)

 

28. Who among the following advocated the Trusteeship Theory of Trade Union?

(A) N.M. Lokhande

(B) B.P. Wadia

(C) G.L. Nanda

(D) M.K. Gandhi

Answer: (D)

 

29. Inter and intra-union rivalry in Trade Unions is reduced by

(A) The provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947

(B) By voluntary tripartite code of inter-union rivalry – 1957

(C) By bipartite mutual agreement at the industry level

(D) Above all

Answer: (B)

 

30. Match the following trade unions according to the year of formation:

List – I                        List – II

a. AITUC                    i. 1947

b. CITU                       ii. 1948

c. INTUC                    iii. 1920

d. HMS                       iv. 1970

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) iii iv i ii

(B) ii iii iv i

(C) iii i ii iv

(D) i ii iii iv

Answer: (A)

 

31. ‘Employment Injury’ means personal injury to an employee caused by accident or occupational disease arising out of and in the course of employment being an insurable employment if the accident occurs or occupational disease is contracted only within territorial limits of India and not outside India.

The above statement is

(A) Correct.

(B) Incorrect.

(C) true only in case of occupational injury.

(D) true only in case of accident.

Answer: (B)

 

32. Under ESI Act, 1948 a member of the Corporation, Standing Committee or the Medical Council shall cease to be a member of the body if he fails to attend

(A) Two consecutive meetings

(B) Three meetings intermittently

(C) Three consecutive meetings

(D) Four consecutive meetings

Answer: (C)

 

33. Under Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923

(A) Individual manager subordinate to an employer cannot act as managing agent.

(B) Managing agent includes an individual manager subordinate to an employer.

(C) Only employer can act as managing agent.

(D) The appropriate government shall appoint managing agent.

Answer: (D)

 

34. The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, the Maternity Benefit Act, 1965 and the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948

(A) Together can be applicable.

(B) The Maternity Benefit Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.

(C) The Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Employees State Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.

(D) If the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the Maternity Benefit Act are applicable, the Employees State Insurance Act is not applicable.

Answer: (D)

 

35. What is the content of the Schedule I of the ESI Act, 1948?

(A) List of injuries deemed to result in permanent total disablement.

(B) List of injuries deemed to result in permanent partial disablement.

(C) List of occupational diseases.

(D) None of the above

Answer: (D)

 

36. A person is qualified to be chosen as a member of the executive or any other office bearer of the registered trade union if he attained the age of

(A) Fifteen years

(B) Eighteen years

(C) Twenty one years

(D) Twenty five years

Answer: (B)

 

37. The registered trade union can collect political fund from its members as a

(A) General fund

(B) Cannot collect political fund

(C) Separate fund from the interested members

(D) Only from political parties

Answer: (C)

 

38. ‘Award’ under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is

(a) Not interim determination of labour court

(b) Not arbitration award under Section 10A

(c) Not final determination of labour court

(d) Not final determination of arbitration award under section 10A

(A) All statements are true.

(B) (a) and (d) are true.

(C) (b) is true.

(D) All statements are wrong.

Answer: (D)

 

39. The dispute of individual workman is deemed to be industrial dispute if the dispute or difference is connected with or arising out of the following where no other workman nor any union of workman is a party to the dispute.

(A) Grievance of an individual workman.

(B) Discharge of an individual workman.

(C) Dismissal of an individual workman.

(D) Discharge, dismissal, retrenchment or otherwise termination of services of an individual workman.

Answer: (D)

 

40. The ceiling on wage or salary for calculation of Bonus under the

Payment of Bonus Act 1965 is

(A) Rs. 2,500

(B) Rs. 3,500

(C) Rs. 4,500

(D) Rs. 6,500

Answer: (B)

 

41. “A desirable state of existence comprehending physical, mental, moral and emotional health or well-being” is the theme of which concept of Labour Welfare?

(A) Social Concept

(B) Total Concept

(C) Relative Concept

(D) Positive Concept

Answer: (B)

 

42. Assertion (A): Labour Welfare is relative to time and space.

Reason (R): It shall be universal and perpetual.

(A) Assertion and Reason are right.

(B) Assertion is wrong and Reason is right.

(C) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.

(D) Assertion is right but its explanation given in Reason is wrong.

Answer: (D)

 

43. Minimum conditions of welfare is explained by

(A) Dr.Aykroid’s formula

(B) Subsistence Theory

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

 

44. Which of the following is not a principle of Labour Welfare?

(A) The Principle of Uniformity

(B) The Principle of Co-ordination and Integration

(C) The principle of Association

(D) The Principle of Timeliness

Answer: (A)

 

45. Match the following:

List – I                                                                                    List – II

(Theme)                                                                                   (Theory)

a. The labour welfare philosophy is meant for guarding the interests of labour against the exploitation of employers.                                                             i. Trusteeship Theory

b. The labour welfare philosophy exposes the cause of empathic considerations by the employer of employee well-being                                       ii. Placating Theory

c. The employer has to set out a portion of the profits for the benefit of the employees                                                                                                       iii. Policing Theory

d. Labour Welfare is provided for pacifying the agitating working class                                                                                                                              iv. Philanthropic Theory

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) ii iv iii i

(B) iii iv i ii

(C) iii i ii iv

(D) iv ii iii i

Answer: (B)

 

46. “Labour is not a commodity” – is the assertion made by

(A) The Declaration of Philadelphia adopted by 26th session of ILO

(B) The Magna Carta

(C) The Constitution of India

(D) The International Labour Conference

Answer: (A)

 

47. Match the following:

Concept                                   Propagators

a. Industrial Democracy          i. Karl Marx

b. Industrial Citizenship          ii. Robert Owen

c. Class Conflict                      iii. Peter F. Drucker

d. Welfare Movement             iv. Sydney &Beatrize Webbs

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) iii i ii iv

(B) iv iii i ii

(C) ii i iv iii

(D) ii iv i iii

Answer: (B)

 

48. Assertion (A): Industrial Labour in India has been migratory.

Reason (R): Driving force in migration comes almost entirely from one end of the channel, that is the village end.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(B) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.

(C) (A) is right and (R) also is right.

(D) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.

Answer: (C)

 

49. Match the following:www.netugc.com

Theory of wages                                 Propagators

a. Wage Fund Theory                                     i. John Bates Clark

b. Marginal Productivity Theory         ii. John Davidson

c. Bargaining Theory                           iii. John Stuart Mill

d. Investment Theory                          iv. Gilelman

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) ii iv i iii

(B) iii i ii iv

(C) iv ii iii i

(D) i iii ii iv

Answer: (B)

 

50. The “Marginal Discounted Product of Labour” as a modified version of Marginal Productivity Theory was advanced by

(A) Taussig

(B) Kalecki

(C) Ricardo

(D) Adam Smith

Answer: (A)

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