2012 June UGC NET Solved Question Paper in Geography, Paper III

1. The valleys which drain in the same direction as the original consequent drainage but at the lower topographic levels and have developed with respect to new base levels are known as

(A) Resequent

(B) Obsequent

(C) Insequent

(D) Subsequent

Answer: (A)

 

2. The concept of ‘base level erosion’ was proposed by

(A) Davis

(B) Malott

(C) Johnson

(D) Powell

Answer: (D)

 

3. Given below are the two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The velocity of moving ice increases with steepness of slope of the area and thickness of glacial ice.

Reason (R): The velocity decreases to the sides owing to lesser depth of ice and friction against the valley walls and the bottom floor.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

 

4. The normal cycle of erosion is associated with

(A) Marine erosion

(B) Wind erosion

(C) River erosion

(D) Glacial erosion

Answer: (C)

 

5. Which of the following groups of scholars stressed the role of lateral erosion by streams in the formation of pediments?

(A) Mc. Gee, Paige, Blackwelder

(B) Mc Gee, Blackwelder, Johnson

(C) Paige, Blackwelder, Johnson

(D) Paige, Johnson, Lawson

Answer: (C)

 

6. Which of the following is not a topographic evidence of rejuvenation in landscape?

(A) Incised meanders

(B) Structural benches

(C) Paired valley terraces

(D) Multi-cyclic valley

Answer: (B)

 

7. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                                            List – II

(a) Loess                                                          (i) river deposit

(b) Moraines                                                    (ii) glacial deposit

(c) Gravels                                                       (iii) wind deposit

(d) Silt                                                             (iv) marine deposit

Codes :

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(B) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(C) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(D) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Answer: (B)

 

8. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Ozone hole is observed only over Antartica.

Reason (R): Ozone depleting gases are present throughout the stratosphere.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(B) (A) is true and (R) is wrong.

(C) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(D) (A) is wrong, but (R) is true.

Answer: (D)

 

9. Which of the following types of clouds appears at the highest level in the sky?

(A) Alto – cumulus

(B) Cirro-cumulus

(C) Cumulo-nimbus

(D) Strato-cumulus

Answer: (B)

 

10. Atmospheric temperature decreases with height in the troposphere because

(A) Air at higher altitude is less dense

(B) Solar radiation is less at higher level

(C) There are more atmospheric gases at higher altitudes

(D) The atmosphere is heated by radiation from the surface

Answer: (D)

11. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(A) Foehn : Warm dry winds moving down the Alps

(B) Mistral : Cold wind blowing from Alps over France

(C) Santa Ana : Warm dry wind moving down Appalachian

(D) Bora : Cold winds experienced along the eastern coast of the Adriatic sea

Answer: (C)

 

12. Which one of the following gases is not a natural element of the atmosphere?

(A) Krepton

(B) Argon

(C) Chloroflurocarbon

(D) Water vapour

Answer: (C)

 

13. In Koppen’s classification of climate, the symbol Aw refers to

(A) Tropical Savanna climate

(B) Monsoon climate

(C) Tropical Rainforest climate

(D) Steppe climate

Answer: (A)

 

14. The strongest winds in a hurricane are found in

(A) the eye of the hurricane

(B) the spiral bands of thunderstorm

(C) the eye wall of the hurricane

(D) the easterly waves

Answer: (C)

 

15. Which one of the following characterizes paternoster lake?www.netugc.com

(A) A lake of volcanic origin

(B) A shallow stretch of water separated from the sea

(C) A crescent shaped lake formed due to cut-off of a river meander

(D) Lake formed on glacial stairways

Answer: (D)

 

16. Thornthwaite’s modified climatic classification is based on the concept of:

(A) Effective temperature

(B) Precipitation index

(C) Potential evapotranspiration

(D) Potential precipitation

Answer: (C)

 

17. Selva forests are

(A) Broad leaf evergreen forests

(B) Broad leaf deciduous forests

(C) Coniferous evergreen forests

(D) Coniferous deciduous forests

Answer: (A)

 

18. The specific place of an organism in an ecosystem is called as:

(A) Niche

(B) Autotroph

(C) Trophic level

(D) Food Pyramid

Answer: (A)

 

19. Which of the following is referred to as producer in marine ecosystem?

(A) Small fish

(B) Fungi

(C) Zooplanktons

(D) Phytoplankton

Answer: (D)

 

20. Saline soils are the results of

(A) very high precipitation and leaching of the soil

(B) high rate of evaporation and very little leaching of the soil.

(C) high precipitation and very little leaching of the soil

(D) all the above

Answer: (B)

21. “There is no holiday for vegetation – growth is rapid, uninterrupted and continuous.” This statement applies to

(A) Taiga region

(B) Monsoon region

(C) Mediterranean region

(D) Rainy tropics

Answer: (D)

 

22. The largest variety of plants and animals is found in the

(A) Temperate forests

(B) Monsoon forests

(C) Tropical forests

(D) Tropical grassland

Answer: (C)

 

23. Which one of the following statements about salinity is not correct?

(A) Salinity is directly related to precipitation

(B) There exists a direct relationship between the rate of evaporation and salinity

(C) Low salinity is found near the mouth of a river

(D) The salinity is highest at the tropics and decreases towards poles and equator

Answer: (A)

 

24. The origin of the ocean currents is related to

(A) Gravitational force

(B) Winds

(C) Salinity and density

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

 

25. Schaefer was in favour of:

(A) Exceptionalism

(B) Idiography

(C) Areal differentiation

(D) Scientific generalization

Answer: (D)

 

26. Which of the following principles does not belong to logical positivism?

(A) Principle of causation

(B) Structuralism

(C) Behaviourism

(D) Functionalism

Answer: (C)

 

27. Which of the following matches is not correct?

Author                                                 Book

(A) William Bunge                  Theoretical Geography

(B) David Harvey                   Social Well being: A Spatial Perspective

(C) David Smith                     Human Geography: A Welfare Approach

(D) R. Peet                              Modern Geographical Thought

Answer: (B)

 

28. The statement that “Egypt is the gift of the river Nile” is attributed to

(A) Aristotle

(B) Herodotus

(C) Strabo

(D) Seneca

Answer: (B)

 

29. Who among the following pleaded that history be treated geographically and geography be treated historically ?

(A) Homer

(B) Thales

(C) Hecataeus

(D) Herodotus

Answer: (D)

 

30. Who among the following Arab scholars made corrections to Ptolemy’s book?

(A) Al-Masudi

(B) Al-Idrisi

(C) Ibn-Khaldun

(D) Ibn-Batuta

Answer: (B)

 

31. Which one of the following is the philosophical basis of quantitative revolution?

(A) Existentialism

(B) Idealism

(C) Phenomenology

(D) Positivism

Answer: (D)

 

32. The concept of paradigm was propounded by

(A) Kant

(B) Peet

(C) Kuhn

(D) Haggett

Answer: (C)

 

33. Who among the following wanted to develop ‘Universal Science’ encompassing all aspects of knowledge?

(A) Humboldt

(B) Ritter

(C) Recluse

(D) Guyot

Answer: (A)

 

34. Who among the following geographers, focussed on man centered geography?

(A) W. H. Davis

(B) Jefferson

(C) Semple

(D) Huntington

Answer: (B)

 

35. Who, among the following, developed the concept of mental map?

(A) Downs and Stea

(B) Gould and White

(C) Saarinen

(D) Boulding and Hagerstrand

Answer: (B)

 

36. Who among the following first initiated the concept of Second Demographic Transition?

(A) Van de Kaa

(B) Lesthaeghe

(C) Coleman

(D) Fitzgerald

Answer: (A)

 

37. The Age-Specific Fertility Rate is maximum in the age-group of

(A) 20-24 years

(B) 25-29 years

(C) 30-34 years

(D) 35-39 years

Answer: (A)

 

38. Which one of the following reasons dominates in Rural to Urban migration in India?

(A) Marriage

(B) Education

(C) Family movement

(D) Employment

Answer: (D)

 

39. Who argued that multiple centres of nuclei were responsible for urban growth?

(A) Harris and Ullman

(B) Hoyt

(C) Park and Burgess

(D) Nelson

Answer: (A)

 

40. The largest and most dominating city in a State with respect to commercial, industrial, educational and political activities refers to:

(A) City Region

(B) Urbanfield

(C) Primate city

(D) Neckropolis

Answer: (C)

 

41. Which one of the following sequences of land use in Burgess model is correct?

(A) Central Business District, zone of workers’ home, commuters’ zone, zone of better residences

(B) Central Business District, zone of better residences, zone of workers’ home, commuters’ zone

(C) Central Business District, zone of workers’ home, zone of better residences, commuters’ zone

(D) Central Business District, zone of better residences, commuters’ zone, zone of workers’ home

Answer: (C)

 

42. If a circle with 1 cm radius represents one lac population, what will be the radius of the circle representing 4 lac population?

(A) 1 cm

(B) 2 cm

(C) 4 cm

(D) 16 cm

Answer: (B)

 

Answer: (B)

 

44. The essential feature of shifting cultivation iswww.netugc.com

(A) Intensity of crops

(B) Rotation of fields

(C) Single cropping

(D) Double cropping

Answer: (B)

 

45. The footloose industries are those for whom:

(A) Transportation costs are relatively unimportant

(B) Transport costs are very important

(C) Presence of raw material in the neighbourhood is necessary

(D) All of the above are necessary

Answer: (A)

 

46. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below:

List – I                                                            List – II

(a) Malaysia                                                                 (1) Coffee

(b) Brazil                                                                     (2) Sugar

(c) Cuba                                                                      (3) Pineapple

(d) Hawai                                                                    (4) Rubber

Codes:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (2) (3) (4) (1)

(B) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(C) (4) (1) (3) (2)

(D) (4) (3) (2) (1)

Answer: (A)

 

47. The three iron and steel plants at Kulti, Burnpur and Hirapur have been merged together as:

(A) Tata Iron and Steel Company

(B) Indian Iron and Steel Company

(C) Bengal Iron Works

(D) Mysore Iron Works

Answer: (B)

 

48. The rice producing areas are associated with

(A) Low density of population

(B) Moderate density of population

(C) High density of population

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

 

49. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List – I Stage of Urbanisation                        List – II Explanation

(a) Urbanisation                                  (i) Certain settlements grow at the cost of surrounding

countryside

(b) Suburbanisation                             (ii) The commuter belt grows at the cost the urban core

(c) Disurbanisation                              (iii) The rate of population loss of the core tapers off or the core starts regaining population

(d) Reurbanisation                              (iv) The population loss of the urban core exceeds the

Population gain of the commuter belt

Codes:

       (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(C) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

Answer: (B)

 

50. Which of the following statements about the consequences of migration is correct?

(A) The population – resource relationship of the two areas involved in the process of migration gets modified significantly as a result of migration.

(B) The people who migrate from the rural areas to the urban industrial areas suffer from the lack of open space, fresh air and good housing.

(C) The dietary habits of emigrants also changes in new areas

(D) all of the above

Answer: (D)

 

51. The informal sector of economy refers to

(A) Capitalist mode of economy

(B) Bazaar type of economy

(C) Dynamic and stable income

(D) Permanent and productive establishment

Answer: (B)

 

52. Which one of the following is not related with informal sector of economy?

(A) Market type of economy

(B) Unskilled/semiskilled labour force

(C) Temporary & unstable income

(D) Capitalist mode of economy

Answer: (D)

 

53. The law of primacy in the context of urban development is most relevant to the countries which have:

(A) A relatively simple economy and spatial structure

(B) Complex economy

(C) Integrated spatial structure

(D) Matured economy

Answer: (A)

 

54. The main occupation of the Gonds is

(A) Food gathering

(B) Forestry

(C) Hunting

(D) Cultivation

Answer: (D)

 

55. Which one of the following is largest in areal extent?

(A) Cultural realm

(B) Cultural region

(C) Cultural landscape

(D) Cultural point

Answer: (A)

 

56. What among the following is the correct sequence of the three stages through which a new boundary under most conditions is determined?

(A) Delimitation, demarcation, allocation

(B) Allocation, delimitation, demarcation

(C) Demarcation, delimitation, allocation

(D) Allocation, demarcation, delimitation

Answer: (A)

 

57. Which one of the following is not usually considered an indicator of social well being?

(A) Infant mortality

(B) Female literacy

(C) Availability of potable water

(D) Crime

Answer: (D)

 

58. Who among the following was an advocate of export based model?

(A) Alonso

(B) Kuklinski

(C) Perroux

(D) North

Answer: (D)

 

59. The Vale of Kashmir is the only level strip of land in the Himalayas. Which river has laid its deposits to form this level plain?

(A) Ravi

(B) Sutlej

(C) Beas

(D) Jhelum

Answer: (D)

 

60. In which of the following States of India women outnumber men?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Karnataka

(C) Haryana

(D) Kerala

Answer: (D)

 

61. Which one of the following States of India records the lowest density of population according to 2011 Census?

(A) Arunachal Pradesh

(B) Meghalaya

(C) Tripura

(D) Manipur

Answer: (A)

 

62. About 85 percent of the total iron ore production of India is from:

(A) Jharkhand and Orissa

(B) Karnataka and Orissa

(C) Bihar and Madhya Pradesh

(D) Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (A)

 

63. Name the Five Year Plan (FYP) in which the ‘Voluntary Sterilization Population Policy’ was introduced.

(A) First Five Year Plan

(B) Second Five Year Plan

(C) Third Five Year Plan

(D) Fourth Five Year Plan

Answer: (B)

 

64. In the sub-continent of India, the region frequently affected by tropical cyclones is the

(A) Gujarat coast

(B) Coromandel coast

(C) Konkan coast

(D) Malabar coast

Answer: (B)

 

65. Which of the following regions/areas is not affected by the monsoon of the Arabian Sea branch?

(A) Western Ghat

(B) Deccan Plateau

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Punjab Plain

Answer: (D)

 

66. The heights of individual points on topographical maps are indicated by:

(A) Spot height only

(B) Benchmark only

(C) Triangulation point only

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D)

 

67. The broadest part of the Himalayas lies in

(A) Himachal Pradesh

(B) Arunachal Pradesh

(C) Jammu & Kashmir

(D) Nagaland

Answer: (C)

 

68. Which of the following regions of India is most developed economically?

(A) North-eastern hill region

(B) Eastern region

(C) North-western region

(D) Central region

Answer: (C)

 

69. If point A is at 230 m and point B at 570 m elevations from mean sea level with a horizontal equivalent of 2.0 km, which one of the following gradients is correct between these two points?

(A) 0.7 percent

(B) 7.0 percent

(C) 17.0 percent

(D) 27.0 percent

Answer: (C)

 

70. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List – I (Satellite)                                            List – II (Country)

(a) SPOT                                                         (1) India

(b) GOES                                                        (2) France

(c) Meteor-3                                                    (3) Russia

(d) INSAT                                                      (4) USA

Codes:

     (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (2) (4) (3) (1)

(B) (2) (4) (1) (3)

(C) (4) (2) (3) (1)

(D) (4) (2) (1) (3)

Answer: (A)

 

71. Which one of the following techniques is not suitable for showing urban population on the map?

(A) Circles

(B) Divided circles

(C) Spheres

(D) Hachures

Answer: (D)

 

72. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) Contour maps are isopleths maps.

(B) Isopleths are lines of equal value.www.netugc.com

(C) Isopleth technique always takes administrative boundaries into account.

(D) Isopleth technique is suitable for continuous data.

Answer: (C)

 

73. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. Deserts, marshes and hilly tracts are known as the negative areas of population.

2. Dot method is the best technique to show the distribution of population.

3. Dot method can be used to show age and sex composition.

4. The dot map cannot be transferred into isopleth.

Codes:

(A) only 1 and 3 are correct.

(B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

(C) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Answer: (C)

 

74. Which of the following is most suitable to show the unequality in the distribution?

(A) Lorenz curve

(B) Bar graph

(C) Circle diagram

(D) Isopleth

Answer: (A)

 

75. Which one of the following is the correct geometric mean of the data set : 0,50,100,100,150,250,450,500 ?

(A) 125

(B) 100

(C) 200

(D) 0

Answer: (D)

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