2012 December UGC NET Solved Question Paper in Geography, Paper III

1. Most of the details of our present topography belong to the

(A) Pre-Cambrian era

(B) Paleozoic era

(C) Mesozoic era

(D) Cenozoic era

Answer: (D)

 

2. If you are sitting on the beach facing the sea on a sunny afternoon, the local wind will be

(A) Striking your back and continuing to the sea because of sea breeze effect.

(B) Towards your from the sea because of the sea breeze effect.

(C) Towards your from the sea because of the lapse rate effect.

(D) Striking your back and continuing to the sea because of the land breeze effect.

Answer: (D)

 

3. The temperature at which water vapours condense, is the

(A) Relative humidity

(B) Condensation point

(C) Dew point

(D) Evaporation point

Answer: (C)

 

4. Examine the following statements and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. The atmospheric air is never completely dry.

2. Water vapour can occupy as much as 4 percent of the atmospheric volume.

3. Water vapour in the atmosphere is always invisible.

Codes:

(A) 1 and 2 are correct

(B) 2 and 3 are correct

(C) 1 and 3 are correct

(D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Answer: (A)

 

5. Chemical weathering is more effective than mechanical weathering in

(A) Semi-arid region

(B) Arid region

(C) Coastal region

(D) Cool temperate region

Answer: (D)

 

6. A drainage system which is not related to the structure of the region where it occurs is called a

(A) Radial drainage pattern

(B) Trellis drainage pattern

(C) Superimposed drainage pattern

(D) Dendritic drainage pattern

Answer: (D)

 

Answer: (A)

 

8. Given below are the two statements one labelled as Assertion (A) and other Labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The work of wind as an agent of gradation is not as wide spread as that of water.

Reason (R): It is effective only in the desert regions of the world where rainfall is scanty and soil particles are loose.

In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and(R) is the correct explanation of(A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but(R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

 

9. “The Two-Cycle Theory” of the origin of limestone caverns was proposed by

(A) Davis

(B) Swinerton

(C) Gardner

(D) Malott

Answer: (A)

 

10. All those processes which tend to bring the surface of the lithosphere to a common level are collectively known as

(A) Gradation

(B) Degradation

(C) Aggradation

(D) Mass wasting

Answer: (A)

11. Which one of the following atmospheric layers reflects radio waves that are transmitted from the earth again back to the earth?

(A) Mesosphere

(B) Ionosphere

(C) Troposphere

(D) Stratosphere

Answer: (B)

 

12. According to ‘Single cell circulation’ model proposed by Hadley, the most important factor causing global atmospheric circulation iswww.netugc.com

(A) Subsidence at the equator

(B) Temperature contrast between equator and pole

(C) The jet stream

(D) Rotation of the earth

Answer: (B)

 

13. Which of the following would likely to have the lowest albedo?

(A) Mirror

(B) Fresh snow in the Arctic

(C) Moist ploughed soil

(D) Thick cloud

Answer: (C)

 

14. Given below are the two statements one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Hurricane cannot develop in the vicinity of equator.

Reason (R): Coriolis force is maximum over the equator.

In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but(R) is not correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and(R) is the correct explanation.

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (C)

 

15. When sun is shining vertically over tropic of Capricorn?

(A) Days and nights are equal over the entire globe.

(B) Nights are longer than days in the Southern hemisphere.

(C) Nights are equal to 24 hours over the Arctic region.

(D) Days and nights are of 12 hour duration over Antarctica.

Answer: (A)

 

16. Which of the following statements is not true?

(A) Evaporation is directly proportional to temperature

(B) Evaporation is more over land than ocean

(C) Evaporation is higher over warm surface than on cold surface.

(D) Evaporation reduces the amount of heat available in the atmosphere thereby reducing the temperature.

Answer: (B)

 

17. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer by using codes given below:

List – I                        List – II

a. Sublimation             i. the energy absorbed is used to give the motion needed the escape the surface.

b. Freezing                  ii. Energy is released

c. Evaporation             iii. Releases 80 cal/gm

d. Condensation          iv. Absorb 680 cal/gm to change the state

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) ii iii iv i

(B) i iii ii iv

(C) iv iii i ii

(D) iii ii iv i

Answer: (C)

 

18. Pelagic deposits consist of matter derived from algae and are mostly in the form of liquid mud known as

(A) Blue mud

(B) Ooze

(C) Red mud

(D) Coral mud

Answer: (B)

 

19. The average temperature of the surface water of the oceans is

(A) 220 C

(B) 15 C

(C) 26.70 C

(D) 18.6 C

Answer: (C)

 

20. Ecosystem has two components which are

(A) Animals and plants

(B) Trees and weeds

(C) Frogs and men

(D) Abiotic and biotic

Answer: (D)

21. All the ecosystems taken together in a geographical area form a bigger unit called

(A) Community

(B) Territory

(C) Biome

(D) Biosphere

Answer: (C)

 

22. Which one of the following ocean currents belongs to Indian Ocean?

(A) Canary Current

(B) Antilles Current

(C) Labrador Current

(D) Agulhas Current

Answer: (D)

 

23. The Western Coast of Australia records higher salinity due to

(A) Ocean currents

(B) Wind direction

(C) Dry weather condition

(D) All the above

Answer: (C)

 

24. The highest salinity is found in the

(A) Baltic Sea

(B) Okhotsk Sea

(C) Mediterranean Sea

(D) Red Sea

Answer: (D)

 

25. Which of the following statements about synecology is correct?

(A) It is a study of individual species in relation to its environment.

(B) It is a study of complex interrelationship of biotic communities.

(C) It is essentially habitat ecology.

(D) It is mainly social ecology.

Answer: (B)

 

26. Organic deposits made by living or dead organisms that form rock elevation like a ridge are known as

(A) Corals

(B) Canyons

(C) Reefs

(D) Guyots

Answer: (C)

 

27. Which one of the schools of thought first developed possibilism?

(A) German School of Geography

(B) Russian School of Geography

(C) French School of Geography

(D) British School of Geography

Answer: (C)

 

28. Which one of the following is not a supporter of the theory of determinism?

(A) Wolfgang Hartake

(B) R. Hartshorne

(C) O.H.K. Spate

(D) All the above

Answer: (D)

 

29. Who among the following noted first the regularity between the sizes of cities and their rank?

(A) Zipf

(B) Jefferson

(C) Auerbach

(D) Christaller

Answer: (C)

 

30. Who among the following is an advocate of idealism in geography?

(A) Guelke

(B) Gilbert

(C) Samuels

(D) Pocock

Answer: (A)

 

31. The statement that ‘a method by which one can rethink the thought of those whose actions one seeks to explain’ refers in human geography to the philosophy of

(A) Phenomenology

(B) Idealism

(C) Existentialism

(D) Positivism

Answer: (B)www.netugc.com

 

32. Which among the following was responsible for the radical transformation of spirit and purpose of geography?

(A) Post Modernism

(B) Humanism

(C) Structuralism

(D) Quantification

Answer: (D)

 

33. Which among the following was one of the forces responsible for continental drift according to Wegner?

(A) Tidal Force

(B) Convection Currents

(C) Tensional Force

(D) Compressional force

Answer: (A)

 

34. Which one of the following States /Union Territories recorded the highest density of population as per census 2011?

(A) Chandigarh

(B) West Bengal

(C) Kerala

(D) Maharashtra

Answer: (A)

 

35. If economic landscape of a region is dependent on ‘transport principle’ of central place system, with the population size of 4.0 lakh of its highest order town, which one of the following population size of next lower order town is correct?

(A) 3.0 lakh

(B) 2.0 lakh

(C) 1.0 lakh

(D) 0.5 lakh

Answer: (C)

 

36. Who defined settlement geography first time incorporating the concept of settlement pattern, house types and field system?

(A) Meitzen

(B) Stone

(C) Huntington

(D) Trewartha

Answer: (A)

 

37. The sparsely populated countries have slow growth of industries because

(A) Of shortage of skilled labour

(B) Small population does not provide a good market

(C) Of both (A) and (B)

(D) Agriculture is more developed than industries

Answer: (C)

 

38. Which one of the following countries has the highest density of population?

(A) Bangladesh

(B) Pakistan

(C) Sri Lanka

(D) India

Answer: (A)

 

39. The size of population in lower age group is large in countries where

(A) Birth rate is high

(B) Birth rate is low

(C) Death rate is high

(D) Death rate is low

Answer: (A)

 

40. The base of the age-sex pyramid is broad and apex is narrow in

(A) Developed countries

(B) Developing countries

(C) Under developed countries

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

 

Answer: (B)

 

42. Which one of the following matches in case of shifting cultivation is not correct?

(A) Ladang – Indonesia

(B) Ray – Vietnam

(C) Milpa – Mexico

(D) Tamrai – Brazil

Answer: (D)

 

43. The Polar Regions are sparsely populated because

(A) The growing season is short owing to low temperature

(B) There are no mineral resources

(C) The regions are forested

(D) Both (B) and (C)

Answer: (A)

 

44. Which one of the following countries is the major producer of mica?

(A) India

(B) U.S.A.

(C) Brazil

(D) China

Answer: (A)

 

45. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List – I                        List – II

(Sectors)                      (Economic Activities)

a. Primary sector         i. Business organisation

b. Secondary sector     ii. Cultivation

c. Tertiary sector         iii. Handloom textiles

d. Quaternary             iv. Transport services

Codes:

      a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii iii iv i

(C) ii iii i iv

(D) iv iii ii i

Answer: (B)

 

46. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                    List – II

(Industrial activities)               (Explanations)

a. Processing activities            i. Inputs are processed goods

b. Fabricating activities           ii. Major inputs are raw material

c. Integrative activities            iii. Involve neither inputs nor outputs

d. Administrative activities     iv. Inputs are processed goods undergoing little change

Codes:

a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii i iv iii

(C) i iv iii ii

(D) iii ii iv i

Answer: (B)

 

47. The number of persons expressed in terms of unit area of agricultural land is known as

(A) Economic Density

(B) Physiological Density

(C) Arithmetical Density

(D) Agricultural Density

Answer: (D)

 

48. Who among the following proposed a grand scheme of natural regions on a global scale by combining physical determinants of plants and animals life?

(A) Unstead

(B) Herbertson

(C) Whittlesey

(D) Dickinson

Answer: (B)

 

49. Which of the following was not mentioned by Brunhes as essential fact of human geography?

(A) Facts of unproductive occupation of soil.

(B) Facts of plants and animal conquest

(C) Facts of destructive exploitation

(D) Facts of manufacturing

Answer: (D)

 

50. Which one of the following factors is not affecting the voting behaviour?

(A) Religious

(B) Castes

(C) High level of literacy

(D) Size of landholdings

Answer: (D)

 

51. Which indicator from among the following could be the best indicator of social well-being?

(A) Population growth rate

(B) Literacy rate

(C) Life-expectancy

(D) Per capita income

Answer: (C)

 

52. Who among the followings gave the concept of ‘Rimland’ theory?

(A) A Ratzel

(B) O.H.K. Spate

(C) Spykman

(D) Griffith Taylor

Answer: (C)www.netugc.com

 

53. Who propounded the theory of ‘Heartland’ in political geography?

(A) Mackinder

(B) Spykman

(C) Smith

(D) Raiz

Answer: (A)

 

54. A functional region is delineated on the basis of

(A) Administrative boundaries

(B) Field of interactions

(C) Isolines

(D) Physical divisions

Answer: (B)

 

55. Who in census of India applied the ‘ternary diagram’ for the functional classification of towns in India?

(A) P. Padmanabha

(B) A.R. Nanda

(C) Ashok Mitra

(D) Chandrasekhar

Answer: (C)

 

56. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                                            List – II

(Author)                                              (Name of the Book)

a. W. Christaller                                  i. Rural settlement and land use

b. V.L.S. PrakasaRao                          ii. Metropolitan Hyderabad and its region

c. ManzoorAlam& W. Khan               iii. Regional Planning

d. M. Chisholm                                   iv. Central places in Southern Germany

Codes:

      a b c d

(A) i iii iv ii

(B) ii i iii iv

(C) iv iii ii i

(D) i ii iii iv

Answer: (C)

 

57. Who authored the book entitled ‘growth Pole and Growth Centres for Regional Economic Development in India’?

(A) Sen and Wanmali

(B) Sadasyuk and Sengupta

(C) Misra, Rao and Sundaram

(D) Rao and Sundaram

Answer: (C)

 

58. Which one of the following states recorded the highest decadal growth rate of population between 2001 & 2011 as per census record?

(A) Bihar

(B) Uttar Pradesh

(C) Rajasthan

(D) Arunanchal Pradesh

Answer: (D)

 

59. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                                List – II

(Type of climate)                     (Region)

a. Aw                                      i. Rain shadow zone of Karnataka

b. Amw                                   ii. Thar Desert

c. BShw                                  iii. W. Bengal &Bihar

d. BWhw                                iv. Malabar Coast

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) iii iv i ii

(B) iii i iv ii

(C) ii i iv iii

(D) ii iv i iii

Answer: (A)

 

60. Which one of the following rivers does not make a delta?

(A) Mahanadi

(B) Godavari

(C) Tapti

(D) Ganga

Answer: (C)

 

61. Which one of the following rivers does not flow through Himachal Pradesh?

(A) Jhelum

(B) Beas

(C) Chenab

(D) Ravi

Answer: (A)

 

62. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                    List – II

(Rivers)                                   (Their tributaries)

a. Krishna                                i. Chambal

b. Brahamaputra                      ii. Indravati

c. Godavari                             iii. Tista

d. Yamuna                              iv. Bhima

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) iv iii ii i

(B) iii iv ii i

(C) iv iii i ii

(D) i iv iii ii

Answer: (A)

 

63. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                                List – II

(Soil)                                       (State)

a. Alluvial                                i. Rajasthan

b. Black soil (Regur)               ii. Uttar Pradesh

c. Desert                                  iii. Maharashtra

d. Red                                                 iv. Meghalaya

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) i ii iii iv

(B) ii iii iv i

(C) ii iii i iv

(D) iv ii iii i

Answer: (C)

 

64. Which one records the lowest normal temperature in the month of January?

(A) Bikaner

(B) Banglore

(C) Jaisalmer

(D) Firozpur

Answer: (D)

 

65. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                    List – II

(Pass)                           (State)

a. Shipki La                 i. Arunachal Pradesh

b. Nitipass                   ii. Himachal Pradesh

c. Nathula                    iii. Uttrakhand

d. Bomdi La                iv. Sikkim

Codes:

      a b c d

(A) ii iii iv i

(B) ii iii i iv

(C) iv ii i iii

(D) iv ii iii i

Answer: (A)

 

66. Which one of the following states has the lowest percentage of scheduled tribes?

(A) Arunachal Pradesh

(B) Manipur

(C) Mizoram

(D) Nagaland

Answer: (B)

 

67. Which of the following hills forms the North Eastern edge of the Chhota Nagpur Plateau?

(A) Rajmahal Hills

(B) Mikir Hills

(C) Parasnath Hills

(D) Javadi Hills

Answer: (A)

 

68. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer using codes given below:

1. In a Representative Fraction (R.F.), the numerator is always one.

2. In an R.F. Scale, the unit of denominator is always as of the unit of numerator.

3. R.F. is not suitable technique of showing scale on a map.

4. The statement scale, e.g. 1 cm to 1 km is suitable scale on a map.

Codes:

(A) 1, 2 and 3 is correct

(B) 1, 3 and 4 is correct

(C) 2, 3 and 4 is correct

(D) 1, 2 and 4 is correct

Answer: (D)

 

69. If Representative Fraction (RF) of a map is 1/5000 which is reduced three times, which of the following RF is correct for reduced map?

(A) 1/2,500

(B) 1/1,000

(C) 1/15,000

(D) 1/25,000

Answer: (C)

 

70. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. IRS is the mainstay of National Natural Resources Management System (NNRMS) in India.

2. Development and operational responsibilities of earth observation in India is overseen by the National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA).

Codes:

(A) Only 1 is correct

(B) Only 2 is correct

(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct

(D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Answer: (A)

 

71. Which one of the following statement is correct in contest of Sten-de-Geer’s method used for showing population distribution?

(A) Rural population is shown by sphere method

(B) Urban population is shown by dot method

(C) Scale of Cube-roots are used for showing the spheres

(D) Spheres occupy bigger space on map.

Answer: (C)

 

72. Which one of the following measurements is used for inequality distribution of farmers’ income subject to their landholding size of an area?www.netugc.com

(A) Standard Deviation

(B) Coefficient of Variation

(C) Gini Index

(D) Correlation coefficient

Answer: (C)

 

73. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Random sampling is called as probability sampling.

(b) Random sampling is done with help of random table.

(c) Landscape elements are generally scattered at random.

Codes:

(A) (a) and (b) are correct.

(B) (b) and (c) are correct.

(C) (a) and (c) are correct.

(D) (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

Answer: (A)

 

74. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List – I                                                List – II

(Cartographic method)            (Map)

a. Chorochromatic                   i. Contour

b. Choroschematic                  ii. Administrative map

c. Isopleth                               iii. Use of letters like R = Rice, W = wheat

d. Choropleth                          iv. Density of population

Codes:

       a b c d

(A) ii iii iv i

(B) ii iii i iv

(C) iii ii iv i

(D) iii ii i iv

Answer: (B)

 

75. According to Nearest Neighbour Index, what would be the maximum value for the perfect uniform settlement distribution?

(A) 0.00

(B) 2.15

(C) 1.55

(D) 2.89

Answer: (B)

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